What we are reading here is an account of a dispute within Judaism: Jewish monotheist vs. Jewish monotheist. The God of Jewish monotheism is the Father. Is the Father/God himself on the side of the Jewish monotheist who claims to be the Messiah or is the Father/God himself on the side of Jewish monotheists who reject the Jewish monotheist who is claiming to be the Messiah.
Jewish monotheists who refused to believe Jesus said to him, “we have one Father, God himself” (v. 41) - God himself is on our side. He didn’t send you. You aren’t the Messiah.
Jesus told them if it was true that the Father is their God they would believe him. The heavy blow delivered by Jesus was telling unbelieving Jewish monotheists that their God isn’t the Father - God himself isn’t on your side. God himself is on my side. He sent me. I am the Messiah. Your father is the devil.
That’s what it boils down to: Believe the messianic claim of a Jewish monotheist, Jesus of Nazareth - the Father/God himself is your God. Refuse to believe the messianic claim of a Jewish monotheist, Jesus of Nazareth - the Father/God himself is not your God, your god is really the devil.
I don't understand your question.
Isaiah, a Jewish monotheist, saw the Father/God himself in a vision.
My question for you: Do you agree with DesertWanderer that Jesus is not a Jewish monotheist and he doesn’t have a God?
Ok, regarding what DesertWangere said, (and I am not speaking for him) I know Jesus said at John 20:17, "Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethern, and say to them, I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God." Obviously, to me Jesus is speaking from His humanity and this brought out at Philippians 2:5-8. At vs6, "who, although He existed as God took on another form which was that of a human being/bondservant at vs7. Like I said, I don't know if DesertWandere knows this, therefore I can't speak for him.
Now, I did make this statement: "How is it the "Jewish monotheist" in the NT all understood what Jewish said about Himself even at the cost of some of their lives?" I meant to type "Jesus" instead of "what Jewish said about Himself, that was my mistake. My point was to show that the Apostle and others died/some of them tortured because they clearly understood about Jewish monotheism and acknowledge Jesus Christ to be God Almighty. This is what Thomas declared to Jesus Himself at John 20:28.
Now, regarding Isaiah 6:1, Isaiah saw the glory of YHWH and there is only ONE time that Isaiah saw the gory of YHWH. the verb Isaiah used for "saw" at 6:1 is (ra 'ah). It refers to the act of seeing in the literal sense, to see with the eyes (as opposted to, for example "machazeh," which is the act or event of an ecsatic "vision")
The Apostle John referes to this event at John 12:37-41. In referring to this event John uses the Greek word ("eddon") which is also a verb referring to the act of seeing with the eyes in the natural sense. I turn you attention to John 12:41, "These things Isaiah said, because (or why), he saw His/Jesus Christ glory, and he/Isaiah SPOKE of Him/Jesus Christ." Jesus Himself make this clear at vs45, "And he who beholds Me beholds the One who sent Me."
You know what is kind of astounding to me? It's when the cults, like the Jw"s, Mormons, the Unitarians especially and some of the others is when they see the word "God" in the Old Testament it "must" mean that it refers to the Father. Well, this is not the case and I can give you hundreds of examples. This one example alone is enough proof to dispel this notion.
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto