Three Gods or one? Explain the Trinity.
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No, HE taught us to go directly to the FATHER with Prayer. To use an inmate terminology, HE IS THE SHOT CALLER.
So JESUS functioned with 100% of his human side when HE PRAYED. This will make it clear:
Hebrews 2:9 (ESV)
9 But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
HE DID NOT ABANDON HIS DEITY, but Set it ASIDE for a little while, to function like a normal human being, and DID NOT SIN. So yes, after his Ascension, HE NOW HAS EVERYTHING UNDER HIS FEET. In other words, HE TOOK HIS FULL GLORY BACK.
Luke 10:22 (GWT)
22 “My Father has turned everything over to me. Only the Father knows who the Son is. And no one knows who the Father is except the Son and those to whom the Son is willing to reveal Him.”
So, HE PRAYED TO THE FATHER while on earth.
Matthew 26:39 (NASB77)
39 And He went a little beyond them, and fell on His face and prayed, saying, "My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; yet not as I will, but as Thou wilt."
Now let me explain something else, that TITLE ACCORDING TO JEWISH HEREDITARY LAWS, DOES NOT DESIGNATE OFFSPRING. It is a TITLE give to anyone the Father, chooses to GIVE that TITLE of INHERITANCE TO. IT DESIGNATES WHO WILL INHERIT ALL THAT THE FATHER HAS, and in THE FATHER'S CASE, HE designated the Second Person of the HOLY TRINITY. FROM VERY MOMENT of being designated, the recipient of that designation, HAS THE RIGHT IN ISRAEL, TO USE THE TITLE OF "SON OF GOD", EVEN THO HE IS THE SECOND IN THE HOLY TRINITY. It does not have to be in WRITING, it can be VERBAL as long as you have two or three Witnesses. I VERIFIED THAT THROUGH A CHRISTIAN LAWYER IN ISRAEL, AND THAT LAW STILL IS IN EFFECT in Israel, AND IT WOULD HAVE COVERED EVERYTHING THE FATHER HAS, INCLUDING DEITY!
FOR EXAMPLE: I Benjamin was getting old, and he figured it is time to designate an heir. He had three sons, and all three were drunkards, so Benjamin wanted to give it to someone who is responsible, so he gathered three witnesses, and verbally he designated his SERVANT to be heir to all that he has. That SERVANT has to right to use the TITLE "Son of Benjamin", from that day forth.
Look again at Luke 10:22, inheritance LAW is in effect, and JESUS is HEIR to all the FATHER HAS, INCLUDING HIS DEITY.
The BIBLE CALLS ALL THREE of those HEAVEN.
2 Corinthians 12:2-4 (ESV)
2 I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven—whether in the body or out of the body I do not know, God knows.
3 And I know that this man was caught up into paradise—whether in the body or out of the body I do not know, God knows—
4 and he heard things that cannot be told, which man may not utter.
Revelation 4:2-3 (NKJV)
2 Immediately I was in the Spirit; and behold, a throne set in heaven, and One sat on the throne.
3 And He who sat there was like a jasper and a sardius stone in appearance; and there was a rainbow around the throne, in appearance like an emerald.
Genesis 22:17 (ESV)
17 I will surely bless you, and I will surely multiply your offspring as the stars of heaven and as the sand that is on the seashore. And your offspring shall possess the gate of his enemies,
Genesis 1:20 (NJB)
20 God said, ‘Let the waters be alive with a swarm of living creatures, and
let birds wing their way above the earth across the vault of heaven.' And so it was.
2 Corinthians 12:2-4 (ESV)
2 I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven—whether in the body or out of the body I do not know, God knows.
3 And I know that this man was caught up into paradise—whether in the body or out of the body I do not know, God knows—
4 and he heard things that cannot be told, which man may not utter.
Revelation 4:2-3 (NKJV)
2 Immediately I was in the Spirit; and behold, a throne set in heaven, and One sat on the throne.
3 And He who sat there was like a jasper and a sardius stone in appearance; and there was a rainbow around the throne, in appearance like an emerald.
Genesis 22:17 (ESV)
17 I will surely bless you, and I will surely multiply your offspring as the stars of heaven and as the sand that is on the seashore. And your offspring shall possess the gate of his enemies,
Genesis 1:20 (NJB)
20 God said, ‘Let the waters be alive with a swarm of living creatures, and
let birds wing their way above the earth across the vault of heaven.' And so it was.
You do know that man does not live by scripture alone but by every word that proceeds from the mouth of the LORD doth man live, if you don't believe me then read John 5:25.
However if not mistaken, in each and every one of those Bibles which use the plural 'heavens' you will find the contain a particular mark within the covers of the book. I am not saying it is the mark of the beast or any thing like that but it is written in Ezekiel 44:5 who will do the marking. But that mark you will find looks like this; ©
The reason Genesis 1:1 uses 'heavens' instead of 'heaven' is due to the fact that in order to obtain a copyright mark for their translations, the publishers of the new translated Bibles had to make 'substantial changes' to the text of the KJV which is now in the public domain here in the US. At one time the British throne held the copyright on the KJV here in the US. But that copyright protection only lasts for 70 years or something like that, then it expires putting the work in the public domain.
And being in the public domain prevents anyone from copying the KJV and obtaining a new copyright without there being those 'substantial changes'in order to receive copyright protection. But ask yourself this, if in the beginning God created 'the heavens and the earth' then what would be the reason for not changing the passages in the NT to 'the heavens and earth shall pass away' yet none of this copyrighted translations changed there verses.
However if not mistaken, in each and every one of those Bibles which use the plural 'heavens' you will find the contain a particular mark within the covers of the book. I am not saying it is the mark of the beast or any thing like that but it is written in Ezekiel 44:5 who will do the marking. But that mark you will find looks like this; ©
The reason Genesis 1:1 uses 'heavens' instead of 'heaven' is due to the fact that in order to obtain a copyright mark for their translations, the publishers of the new translated Bibles had to make 'substantial changes' to the text of the KJV which is now in the public domain here in the US. At one time the British throne held the copyright on the KJV here in the US. But that copyright protection only lasts for 70 years or something like that, then it expires putting the work in the public domain.
And being in the public domain prevents anyone from copying the KJV and obtaining a new copyright without there being those 'substantial changes'in order to receive copyright protection. But ask yourself this, if in the beginning God created 'the heavens and the earth' then what would be the reason for not changing the passages in the NT to 'the heavens and earth shall pass away' yet none of this copyrighted translations changed there verses.
This is a misquote. Or you made it up. Either way, I don't accept it as Biblical weighty. If you have Biblical support for this, we would love to hear it.
"an hour"=a specific event, not a general principle we apply.
"The dead"= nekros= "the corpses". These are the physically dead, not speaking of the spiritually dead. If it was about the spiritually dead, you wouldn't have brought it up for us Christians to heed, for we are not dead, I can assure you.
This verse (John 5:25) is indicative of the resurrection of the body....see verse 28 "in which all who are in the tombs will hear His voice"
Yes, that is because שָּׁמַ֖יִם "heavens" is written in the plural form of the word.
In Jewish thought, there are 3 heavens. When the Bible uses the word in the plural, it refers to the 1st and 2nd heavens. When it uses it in the singular, it refers to the 3rd heaven (Where God's throne is).
There are other places where the word is singular:
"such a man was caught up to the third heaven" (2 Cor 12:2).
The NT does say that: (1st and 2nd heavens)
“But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements will be destroyed with intense heat, and the earth and its works will be burned up.” (2 Peter 3:10).
Heaven (3rd heaven) will also be done away with:
“Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will not pass away.” (Matthew 24:35)
“Then I saw a new heaven and a new earth; for the first heaven and the first earth passed away, and there is no longer any sea.” (Revelation 21:1)
"an hour"=a specific event, not a general principle we apply. "The dead"= nekros= "the corpses". These are the physically dead, not speaking of the spiritually dead. If it was about the spiritually dead, you wouldn't have brought it up for us Christians to heed, for we are not dead, I can assure you.
This verse (John 5:25) is indicative of the resurrection of the body....see verse 28 "in which all who are in the tombs will hear His voice"
Yes, that is because שָּׁמַ֖יִם "heavens" is written in the plural form of the word.
In Jewish thought, there are 3 heavens. When the Bible uses the word in the plural, it refers to the 1st and 2nd heavens. When it uses it in the singular, it refers to the 3rd heaven (Where God's throne is).
There are other places where the word is singular:
"such a man was caught up to the third heaven" (2 Cor 12:2).
The NT does say that: (1st and 2nd heavens)
“But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements will be destroyed with intense heat, and the earth and its works will be burned up.” (2 Peter 3:10).
Heaven (3rd heaven) will also be done away with:
“Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will not pass away.” (Matthew 24:35)
“Then I saw a new heaven and a new earth; for the first heaven and the first earth passed away, and there is no longer any sea.” (Revelation 21:1)
Oh, ok, does it give a time for that specific event?
You can tell yourself that but later there is a reference to those who are physically dead in the 28th & 29th verses:
28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice,
29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
So no, the 25th verse wasn't referring unto those who were physically dead, it was referring unto those who had the LORD had not taught to number their days.
Would I be in error if I perceive that you were being disingenuous when you made this comment?
You say I made mistake or I fabricated it but regardless you weren't going to believe it. Yet as written in Hebrew 3:7, one doesn't know that they don't even know until they are told of that which they had no knowledge of.
However, this too is written in scripture and if you find it, you will also find the Biblical support that man does not live by scripture alone.
You can tell yourself that but later there is a reference to those who are physically dead in the 28th & 29th verses:
28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice,
29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
So no, the 25th verse wasn't referring unto those who were physically dead, it was referring unto those who had the LORD had not taught to number their days.
Would I be in error if I perceive that you were being disingenuous when you made this comment?
You say I made mistake or I fabricated it but regardless you weren't going to believe it. Yet as written in Hebrew 3:7, one doesn't know that they don't even know until they are told of that which they had no knowledge of.
However, this too is written in scripture and if you find it, you will also find the Biblical support that man does not live by scripture alone.
Yes. The resurrection of the righteous will be 3 1/3 years before the Antichrist erects the blasphemous image of himself in the temple. The resurrection of the wicked will be 1007 years after the rapture. If you don't understand the eschatological implications here, that's another conversation...
Back to the main point though...
From John 5:25-29, we see that there are 2 resurrections. If you deny that, I'd like to know why.
Jesus often repeats Himself to make sure we understand what He's saying. This kind of teaching is in fact all over the Bible. He first tells us that "the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God". He then clarifies who the dead are by saying: "all who are in the tombs will hear His voice". Since verse 28 doesn't independently specify who "His" is, it is an indication that it is an extension of the previous clause.
If verse 25 and 28 are the same resurrections being spoken of, then there are 2 resurrections total. But if verse 25 and 28 were different resurrections, then there are 3 resurrections total.
So do you think there 3 resurrections being spoken of here, or two? What is your understanding of the resurrections to come?
Yes. I genuinely believe that you misquoted a verse and/or made an assumption of what a verse means.
And now you won't tell us where you're getting that idea from. I have 131 Bibles and 378 commentaries. None of these contain the phrase "man does not live by Scripture alone".
Please substantiate your comment. The burden of proof lies with you
Back to the main point though...
From John 5:25-29, we see that there are 2 resurrections. If you deny that, I'd like to know why.
Jesus often repeats Himself to make sure we understand what He's saying. This kind of teaching is in fact all over the Bible. He first tells us that "the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God". He then clarifies who the dead are by saying: "all who are in the tombs will hear His voice". Since verse 28 doesn't independently specify who "His" is, it is an indication that it is an extension of the previous clause.
If verse 25 and 28 are the same resurrections being spoken of, then there are 2 resurrections total. But if verse 25 and 28 were different resurrections, then there are 3 resurrections total.
So do you think there 3 resurrections being spoken of here, or two? What is your understanding of the resurrections to come?
Yes. I genuinely believe that you misquoted a verse and/or made an assumption of what a verse means.
And now you won't tell us where you're getting that idea from. I have 131 Bibles and 378 commentaries. None of these contain the phrase "man does not live by Scripture alone".
Please substantiate your comment. The burden of proof lies with you
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Yet it is written in scripture you have the mind of Christ, 1 Corinthians 2:16. So are you saying that Christ doesn't understand the eternal nature of God? (nature being the basic or inherent features of something, especially when seen as characteristic of it. )
Okay, there are three people and one of them doesn't know how to read. So you write down on a piece a paper 'The days be short and the nights be long."
You give the piece of paper to the first person and ask that person to read what is written on that piece of paper.
Okay, there are three people and one of them doesn't know how to read. So you write down on a piece a paper 'The days be short and the nights be long."
You give the piece of paper to the first person and ask that person to read what is written on that piece of paper.
- That person person replies that he hasn't been taught how to read and hands the piece of paper back to you.
- That person replies that they can't speak the language it is written and hands the piece of paper back to you,
- That person then reads what is written saying "The days are short and the night be long."
The question was: "Explain the Trinity". That is, the Trinity of God. There is only One God. This One God has a Will, that is referred to as "Father", in the scriptures. The Word(s) are the speech Of the Father, and the Character of the Father is his Spirit. ONE God, but manifested by his three attributes which consists of the Trinity concept. Then who is Jesus? He is the WORD of God made flesh, or given a body to reverse Adams transgression. The Trinity has not changed, It therefore still consists of the Father, his Word, and his Spirit.
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Yes. I have no problem with this question...
The first person cannot read the language. The illustration makes that clear.
The second person cannot speak the language (as many languages are not phonetic, and therefore can be read but not spoken).
The Third person can read and speak the language.
The "Burden of Proof" as defined by the Oxford Dictionary is "the obligation to prove ones own assertion". You are the one who asserted that "man does live by Scripture alone". Therefore, the burden of proof lies upon you to substantiate the claim.
The first person cannot read the language. The illustration makes that clear.
The second person cannot speak the language (as many languages are not phonetic, and therefore can be read but not spoken).
The Third person can read and speak the language.
The "Burden of Proof" as defined by the Oxford Dictionary is "the obligation to prove ones own assertion". You are the one who asserted that "man does live by Scripture alone". Therefore, the burden of proof lies upon you to substantiate the claim.
Let us test your understanding of that scripture. Do you think that Paul saying to some that they had the mind of Christ means they understand everything Christ understood and that today you and all believers have in their minds the same understanding of God that Christ had? Think about it. Does reading a scripture that describes a person mean it describes everyone who believes? Does everytime the scripture says "YOU"
Okay, there are three people and one of them doesn't know how to read. So you write down on a piece a paper 'The days be short and the nights be long."
You give the piece of paper to the first person and ask that person to read what is written on that piece of paper.
Okay, there are three people and one of them doesn't know how to read. So you write down on a piece a paper 'The days be short and the nights be long."
You give the piece of paper to the first person and ask that person to read what is written on that piece of paper.
- That person person replies that he hasn't been taught how to read and hands the piece of paper back to you.
- That person replies that they can't speak the language it is written and hands the piece of paper back to you,
- That person then reads what is written saying "The days are short and the night be long."
Sorry, my answer got posted too early, in the middle of typing and the 5 minute edit rule wouldn't let me post the rest.
Let us test your understanding of that scripture. Do you think that Paul saying to some that they had the mind of Christ means they understand everything Christ understood and that today you and all believers have in their minds the same understanding of God that Christ had? Think about it. Does reading a scripture that describes a person mean it describes everyone who believes? Does everytime the scripture says "YOU" does it mean the reader reading the writing?
Having the mind of Christ means we have the same understanding Christ had. What else can it mean? As we read the scriptures and in real life, some have more and some have less of the mind of Christ. Doesn't that seem reasonable?
Let us test your understanding of that scripture. Do you think that Paul saying to some that they had the mind of Christ means they understand everything Christ understood and that today you and all believers have in their minds the same understanding of God that Christ had? Think about it. Does reading a scripture that describes a person mean it describes everyone who believes? Does everytime the scripture says "YOU" does it mean the reader reading the writing?
Having the mind of Christ means we have the same understanding Christ had. What else can it mean? As we read the scriptures and in real life, some have more and some have less of the mind of Christ. Doesn't that seem reasonable?