The Myth of Original Sin?

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Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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#81
The verse says that a grain of wheat cannot be more than one grain unless it dies. Dying is the point and it has to happen before something greater does, which in context would be resurrection to immortality. I quoted just because it is related to the idea that the first death is natural and good and leads us to something greater, and not a result of punishment for sin. The second death is that.
And you don't believe this is a reference to Christ's death and His being the firstborn among many brethren.
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,995
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#82
And you don't believe this is a reference to Christ's death and His being the firstborn among many brethren.
It involves that but the overall context includes others like in verse 25. Like I said, it just re-enforces the concept that death is a natural part of the process to the next life etc.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
5,843
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#83
In Adam all die.....

The wage of sin is death.

This prety much proves adam's sin was imputed to us.

so that Christ righteousness could be imputed also.

As for infant baptism. I had my kids sprinkled as babies. But not for their benefit. It did nothing for them, But for my benefit. I used it to honor God and profess I will raise my kids in his will and guidance
 

ewq1938

Well-known member
Oct 18, 2018
4,995
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#84
This prety much proves adam's sin was imputed to us.

Except scripture says that does not happen.

Eze 18:19 Yet say ye, Why? doth not the son bear the iniquity of the father? When the son hath done that which is lawful and right, and hath kept all my statutes, and hath done them, he shall surely live.
Eze 18:20 The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.
 

Webers.Home

Well-known member
May 28, 2018
5,783
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Oregon
cfbac.org
#85
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FAQ: How was it legitimate for Adam's posterity to be given the death
penalty for his offense when so many passages in the Bible are opposed to
passing a father's mistakes on to his posterity? For example: Ezek 18:1–4,
Ezek 18:18–20, 2Kngs 14:6, Deut 24:16, 2Chron 25:4, and Jer 31:29–30.

REPLY: The laws of God, especially His codified laws, are not retroactive.
(Deut 5:2-4, Rom 4:15, Rom 5:13 and Gal 3:17) in other words: God
doesn't impose His laws ex post facto.

That technicality is very useful when curious folks come around asking how
Jesus' human sacrifice was legal seeing as he-- a Jew --was limited to the
atonements specified in the covenant that Moses' people entered into with
God per Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy, to wit:

Deut 4:2 …You shall not add anything to what I command you or take
anything away from it, but keep the commandments of The Lord your God
that I enjoin upon you.

Deut 5:29-30 …Be careful, then, to do as The Lord your God has
commanded you. Do not turn aside to the right or to the left: follow only the
path that The Lord your God has enjoined upon you.

Well, the secret is: Jesus was designated, and scheduled, to die for the sins
of the world prior to any of that. (1Pet 1:20 & Rev 13:8)
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