No, she wasn't already a prostitute
I am just telling you what one side primarily believes, which should trouble you.
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but she was promiscuous. Whoredom can mean both idolatry and sexual immorality.
You need a specific verse or word connection to prove she was only promiscuous.
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There are other harlots in the Bible who married into the Jewish lineage- Rahab and Tamar are two.
So now you are saying that Gomer is a harlot? That is a prostitute. Even the word "harlot" in the Bible is used as a prostitute (Especially Genesis 38 and Judges 16.
But yes, Rahab was a prostitute. Most Christians know this basic fact. But she was not a practicing prostitute when she married. She gave that life up to serve the Living God. A person can repent, and change their ways. This is not a problem. We are talking about how most of Christianity holds to the view that God told Hosea to marry a practicing prostitute. Now, if she had a change of heart, that would be different.
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Also, Ruth was from Moab and they had fallen into idolatry but she made a vow before she married (to Naomi's God) and Boaz and he could see she was virtuous.
Yes, most Christians are familiar with the Ruth narrative.
The point here is that Gomer was a woman of idolatry and not prostitution.
She would have had to deny serving those false idols and serve the one true God in order to marry Hosea.
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Israelites had previously married Moabites. (They were children of incest - Lot had children with his own daughters)
Not sure your point in bringing this up.
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Don't confuse Ruth and Boaz's story with Hosea and Gomer.
Why would you say that? I am not confusing the two. You would only be assuming that I am.