ALL prophecy in the NT is to the church unless it specifically says otherwise.
Yes it is my question about it I suppose was just wrong after doing some studying I came to the conclusion that the falling away must be for the church but my logic in it makes sense if you think about it however if he was meaning the jews I suppose he would have mention them even though he doesn't specifically say who the prophecy is for it is most likely meaning to the church
I don't have any concrete evidence to support that but I also don't have any concrete evidence to support it is meant for Israel either, really you have to consider what prophecy is for and prophecy is for the church so by that logic this prophecy must be for the church too.