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We are told Christ was in the beginning, and the old testament often speaks of Christ. There is no forgiveness of sin without Christ, that is a fact that didn't become fact at the birth of Christ in Bethlehem, but the instant sin was released in the world God gave blood on the altar for our souls as we are told in Leviticus.
The wages of sin is death, that is an eternal fact also true in the thousands of years before Christ, it is an eternal truth. Yet the 51st Psalm, written well before Bethlehem, speaks of forgiveness. That is what the sacrificial system is all about for in Israel the Lord tells us that He hates the blood of animals, and in Leviticus that there is no forgiveness of sin without blood.
The wages of sin is death, that is an eternal fact also true in the thousands of years before Christ, it is an eternal truth. Yet the 51st Psalm, written well before Bethlehem, speaks of forgiveness. That is what the sacrificial system is all about for in Israel the Lord tells us that He hates the blood of animals, and in Leviticus that there is no forgiveness of sin without blood.
T
Matthew 5:32
But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.
Matthew 1:19
Chapter Parallel Compare
Because Joseph her husband was faithful to the law, and yet did not want to expose her to public disgrace, he had in mind to divorce her quietly.
Romans 7:2
For a married woman is bound by law to her husband while he lives, but if her husband dies she is released from the law of marriage.
The Bible allows divorce for adultery. However, the relevant verses state "man." Does it mean that only men are permitted to divorce their wives, but not vice versa? Do these verses also apply to women? I know some conservative men who say only men can divorce their wives, not vice versa.
I believe these verses apply to both men and women. Adultery is a severe sin which calls for divorce. I don't see why only the man is allowed divorce, but not woman.
But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.
Matthew 1:19
Chapter Parallel Compare
Because Joseph her husband was faithful to the law, and yet did not want to expose her to public disgrace, he had in mind to divorce her quietly.
Romans 7:2
For a married woman is bound by law to her husband while he lives, but if her husband dies she is released from the law of marriage.
The Bible allows divorce for adultery. However, the relevant verses state "man." Does it mean that only men are permitted to divorce their wives, but not vice versa? Do these verses also apply to women? I know some conservative men who say only men can divorce their wives, not vice versa.
I believe these verses apply to both men and women. Adultery is a severe sin which calls for divorce. I don't see why only the man is allowed divorce, but not woman.
Yes, the application of matthew 18 :20 can be extended to other gatherings in a church setting.
Jesus isn't 'only' in the midst for the resolving of sin issues, but for Matthew 18:20 that is the main context.
I contend though it is for a local church setting for being in 'the midst'
Of course not the building but the members gathered as a church
Jesus isn't 'only' in the midst for the resolving of sin issues, but for Matthew 18:20 that is the main context.
I contend though it is for a local church setting for being in 'the midst'
Of course not the building but the members gathered as a church
Honestly, I have to wonder why you posted this.
I could post a question because I want to look smart.
I could post a question because I want to start an argument.
I could just start a new thread & make my point. Why would I mix it in with this one?
I'll just pass on this for now...
I could post a question because I want to look smart.
I could post a question because I want to start an argument.
I could just start a new thread & make my point. Why would I mix it in with this one?
I'll just pass on this for now...
why was the sword of Goliath behind the ephod ? very interesting question, and I can only provide an opinion and maybe be wrong
The weapon of your enemy will be used on them the word of God says, but the best way to fight is to pray before you take the sword to battle. In addition the weapon of goliath was a testimony of Gods deliverance from your enemies.
This to was why God had the Ark also known as the "Testmony " thathad items in it that testified of Gods salvation, provision, and healing. Aaron's rod, the commadments, manna
Only the items that God said were to go into the Ark, how ever King David brought the items like the sword of goliath to testify of what God had done, and cause the King to remember What God had done.
The weapon of your enemy will be used on them the word of God says, but the best way to fight is to pray before you take the sword to battle. In addition the weapon of goliath was a testimony of Gods deliverance from your enemies.
This to was why God had the Ark also known as the "Testmony " thathad items in it that testified of Gods salvation, provision, and healing. Aaron's rod, the commadments, manna
Only the items that God said were to go into the Ark, how ever King David brought the items like the sword of goliath to testify of what God had done, and cause the King to remember What God had done.
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Very good question's.
many have said many things based on denomnations positions and etc..
Divorce God hates. However, What the law of Moses said Jesus brought clarity to and said as Moses " it was allowed because of the Hardness of your heart. Matthew 5 speaks on this Jesus said after asked the question of this very topic.
starting in verse 27
27 “You have heard that it was said to those of old, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ 28 But I say to you that whoever looks at a woman to lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
Then Jesus says,
31 “Furthermore it has been said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.’ 32 But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.
The religious leaders made a loop hole to divorce at will, marriage was the man taking the women to be, many times the women had no say in it. So when a women was exposed to man and she was found not to be a virgin you could legally put her away, in two ways. 1. do so quietly as Joseph wanted to do, or make the claim publicly she was not a virgin which then proof had to be provide.
In the Jewish tradition the consummating sealed the deal , unless she was not found to be a virgin.
what the sexual intercourse was done there was blood that would be on the cloth and this was given to the parents as a symbol of their daughters purity.
IF there Husband made the claim that his wife was unfaith in context to her not being a virgin that was abig disagree to the family
They would bring that cloth with the blood on it and show the edlers this false claim and the husband would have to 1. remain married 2. pay the father for the insult.
Now Marriage was established by God in Genesis 2:24 which Jesus repeated in Matthew 19:3-10
3.The Pharisees also came to Him, testing Him, and saying to Him, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for just any reason?”
4 And He answered and said to them, “Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning ‘made them male and female,’ 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’ ?
Here Jesus just quoted Gen 2:24
6So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”
If they have become one as God said How can you divorce ? Can God divorce Himself? no that is the concept MARRIAGE IS TWO BECOMING ONE. This is why the dicples said later "If such is the case of the man with his wife, it is better not to marry.”
7 They said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?”
8 He said to them, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.
Jesus here is speaking from the beginning meaning Genesis 2:24 Then Jesus raised the standard and gave a higher law on this topic
9 "And I say to you," Any where in the New Testamant Jesus says " I say unto you " is authoritative and the standard.
whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, this is the new standard Jesus is not hearing your paper of divorcement anymore if she was not a virgin, or was sleeping with another man, you cannot divorce her.
and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”
10 His disciples said to Him, “If such is the case of the man with his wife, it is better not to marry.”
in this culture if a man divorced his wife and could not return to her father's house there were only a few things she could do
1. suffer the penalty of death by stoning 2. forced to become a harlot that is what Jesus is saying here when he said
You cause the women to commit adultery" Matthew 5:32
Yes to your answer you are correct this applies to both who are married but at this time women were not as they are today they could not be independent they were to be dependant on the father then their husband, and later in life if as a widow , the church.
many have said many things based on denomnations positions and etc..
Divorce God hates. However, What the law of Moses said Jesus brought clarity to and said as Moses " it was allowed because of the Hardness of your heart. Matthew 5 speaks on this Jesus said after asked the question of this very topic.
starting in verse 27
27 “You have heard that it was said to those of old, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ 28 But I say to you that whoever looks at a woman to lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
Then Jesus says,
31 “Furthermore it has been said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.’ 32 But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.
The religious leaders made a loop hole to divorce at will, marriage was the man taking the women to be, many times the women had no say in it. So when a women was exposed to man and she was found not to be a virgin you could legally put her away, in two ways. 1. do so quietly as Joseph wanted to do, or make the claim publicly she was not a virgin which then proof had to be provide.
In the Jewish tradition the consummating sealed the deal , unless she was not found to be a virgin.
what the sexual intercourse was done there was blood that would be on the cloth and this was given to the parents as a symbol of their daughters purity.
IF there Husband made the claim that his wife was unfaith in context to her not being a virgin that was abig disagree to the family
They would bring that cloth with the blood on it and show the edlers this false claim and the husband would have to 1. remain married 2. pay the father for the insult.
Now Marriage was established by God in Genesis 2:24 which Jesus repeated in Matthew 19:3-10
3.The Pharisees also came to Him, testing Him, and saying to Him, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for just any reason?”
4 And He answered and said to them, “Have you not read that He who made them at the beginning ‘made them male and female,’ 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’ ?
Here Jesus just quoted Gen 2:24
6So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”
If they have become one as God said How can you divorce ? Can God divorce Himself? no that is the concept MARRIAGE IS TWO BECOMING ONE. This is why the dicples said later "If such is the case of the man with his wife, it is better not to marry.”
7 They said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?”
8 He said to them, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.
Jesus here is speaking from the beginning meaning Genesis 2:24 Then Jesus raised the standard and gave a higher law on this topic
9 "And I say to you," Any where in the New Testamant Jesus says " I say unto you " is authoritative and the standard.
whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, this is the new standard Jesus is not hearing your paper of divorcement anymore if she was not a virgin, or was sleeping with another man, you cannot divorce her.
and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”
10 His disciples said to Him, “If such is the case of the man with his wife, it is better not to marry.”
in this culture if a man divorced his wife and could not return to her father's house there were only a few things she could do
1. suffer the penalty of death by stoning 2. forced to become a harlot that is what Jesus is saying here when he said
You cause the women to commit adultery" Matthew 5:32
Yes to your answer you are correct this applies to both who are married but at this time women were not as they are today they could not be independent they were to be dependant on the father then their husband, and later in life if as a widow , the church.
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1
- Show all
why was the sword of Goliath behind the ephod ? very interesting question, and I can only provide an opinion and maybe be wrong
The weapon of your enemy will be used on them the word of God says, but the best way to fight is to pray before you take the sword to battle. In addition the weapon of goliath was a testimony of Gods deliverance from your enemies.
This to was why God had the Ark also known as the "Testmony " thathad items in it that testified of Gods salvation, provision, and healing. Aaron's rod, the commadments, manna
Only the items that God said were to go into the Ark, how ever King David brought the items like the sword of goliath to testify of what God had done, and cause the King to remember What God had done.
The weapon of your enemy will be used on them the word of God says, but the best way to fight is to pray before you take the sword to battle. In addition the weapon of goliath was a testimony of Gods deliverance from your enemies.
This to was why God had the Ark also known as the "Testmony " thathad items in it that testified of Gods salvation, provision, and healing. Aaron's rod, the commadments, manna
Only the items that God said were to go into the Ark, how ever King David brought the items like the sword of goliath to testify of what God had done, and cause the King to remember What God had done.
i was thinking about the significance of it being there, and yeah, it relates to the objects placed in the ark - the jar of manna, Aaron's budded rod, the tablets. but it's not in the ark, tho it has a correlation. so it's similar but not the same as these.
and i was thinking, how did it get there? David brought Goliath's armament back to his own tent, and his head to Jerusalem (((1 Samuel 17:54)) -- as an aside, i believe David buried Goliath's head at Jerusalem and named the place "Golgatha" -- but 1 Samuel 17 is the last 'known location' of the sword of Goliath until we see it in Nob with the tabernacle -- in the sanctuary? or not? but there behind the ephod -- in 1 Samuel 21. so it was in David's possession. i don't think that it's the sort of thing you lose track of, but the sort of thing you treat very carefully and thoughtfully, so i infer that David knew it was there, that David himself had something to do with it being there. in the narrative the priests at Nob seem to be unjustly slain by an antichrist-type, as tho martyrs. like giving the sword of Goliath to the good-shepherd-king is something the world hates, tho that good-shepherd-king has every right to it; it belongs to David and he keeps it wrapped in cloth ((like a garment)), at the sanctuary of God behind the garment of the priest.
another question is where is Goliath's spear? why the sword and not the spear? where's Goliath's armor? why is the "set" broken up?
and the whole question brings up the ephod and everything about ephods. is this the high priest's ephod? is this another ephod. we've got Gideon making a golden ephod in Judges 8:27, and it becoming a snare to the people, who somehow became guilty of idolatry with it. is the ephod at Nob like this? so the sword of Goliath being there is a kind of 'bad thing' ? or is this the high priestly ephod, and the sword being there a 'good thing' ? Jesus mentions Davis going here and receiving the shewbread in Matthew 12:4, calling them innocent, so i get the sense Ahimelek wasn't doing evil, even tho Jesus doesn't mention Goliath's word changing hands at the same event. Saul kills Ahimelek when his evil Edomite shepherd, who was there, tells him what he's done to help David. in fact the evil shepherd is the one who kills him, because Saul's own men will not raise their hands against the priests, defying Saul's orders for fear of God. i don't see indications that Goliath's sword being present, or being given to David, are 'wrong things' in any sense.
it's a really interesting thing, with a puzzle hidden in it -- a kind of obvious question that people don't seem to look into, 'what's Goliath's sword doing there?' -- i mean, you brought up the manna and the rod and the tablets in the ark; there are clearly very important spiritual lessons in why those particular objects are where they are. since this sword is put alongside that, there has to be a deep meaning at the bottom of this, too.
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