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mailmandan

Senior Member
Apr 7, 2014
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Obedience to the commands first given on the Day of Pentecost would be meaningless if not for Jesus' death, burial and resurrection. It is trusting in Jesus and His sacrifice that brings about the reality of having one's sin remitted in obedience to the command to be baptized in water in the name of Jesus. (Luke 24:47, Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16, Rom. 6:3-6...) God's word says it, I believe it.
Oxymoron. It's either trusting in Jesus and His sacrifice that brings the reality of having one's sin remitted or it's baptism that brings the reality of having one's sin remitted. You can't have it both ways. Luke 24:47 doesn't even mention baptism. Repentance (implied in belief/faith) is unto the remission of sins. (Acts 3:19; Acts 5:31; 11:17,18; Acts 26:18; Romans 3:24-26) You fail miserably at properly harmonizing scripture with scripture and are a one string banjo: Water baptism - plink, plink.

I have responded to you numerous times in the past regarding this topic.
Same old broken record of eisegesis. Roman Catholics, Mormons, Oneness Pentecostals and other cults and false religions share your same biased beliefs on water baptism. You can't even see the red flag.

Your response to basic points from scripture that back up the requirement of baptism go unanswered. Your responses end up being a journey down a rabbit trail. I choose not to take that trip since we clearly disagree on what scripture reveals regarding the topic.
You have no answers. Only bias and eisegesis. Biblical hermeneutics is not a journey down a rabbit hole. You just don't get it. :(
 

mailmandan

Senior Member
Apr 7, 2014
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"You are obsessed with water baptism." It seems that it is you who is obsessed with water baptism. I believe you would rather walk through the dry desert of faith alone regeneration theology then humbly submit to your sins be forgiven.

This is a pride issue not a harmony issue.

All the verses you have presented are in harmony with Acts 2:38, you are attempting to use them to negate the purpose of Acts 2:38.
Actually, I am obsessed with the gospel of Christ which is the power of God unto salvation to everyone that BELIEVES.. (Romans 1:16) My sins have already been remitted several years ago when I repented and believed the gospel. (Acts 3:19; 10:43; 11:17,18; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18 etc..) and new without a doubt that I had become born again. I was water baptized the next morning in order to signify being buried with Christ in death and raised with Him to walk in newness of life. Praise God! :)

Salvation by faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18) is not in harmony with salvation by water baptism. You would obviously walk around mountains of grace (Romans 5:1-2; Ephesians 2:8,9) in order to find water. It's a shame that human pride will not allow you to place your faith in Jesus Christ alone for salvation. (Romans 4:5-6; 2 Timothy 3:15) Instead, you turn to supplements, namely, (baptismal salvation). You need to place your faith in the Savior God instead of the water god.

In regard to your pet verse (Acts 2:38) I properly harmonized scripture with scripture before reaching my conclusion on doctrine.
See posts #355 and #401. Acts 10:43-47 negates your biased interpretation of Acts 2:38. *Hermeneutics.
 

Beckie

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Feb 15, 2022
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Paul makes the point that obedience to the command to be baptized is when one's prior sin is dealt with in association with Jesus' sacrifice. (Rom. 6:3-6) Afterward, as a new creation we confess our sins through prayer and Jesus cleanses us. (1 John 1:9)

According to Jesus, water baptism is an essential part of the gospel message: "Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." Mark 16:15-16

I trust that obedience to the word of God brings about what it says. "be baptized everyone of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sin..." (Acts 38-39)

Jesus sent Ananias to tell Paul what he must do. (Acts 9:6-18)
Paul recounts what Ananias told him. "...be baptized and wash away his sin calling on the name of the Lord. (Acts 22:16)

Paul rebaptized the Ephesians in the name of the Lord Jesus and laid hands on them to receive the Holy Ghost some 30 years after the initial message was presented by Peter at Pentecost. (Acts 19:1-7)

There is no scriptural evidence that the requirement to be water baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sin has ever changed.
Rev. 7:14 says "...they have washed their robes... Do you not agree that being buried with Jesus by baptism could be when the blood is applied? A typical burial involves being placed under/in the ground. In the case of water baptism the person is placed under the water and then brought back out. It is a picture of a newborn coming forth from the womb. (unless a man is reborn) Consider that God's word states spiritual truths can be understood by God's design of the natural realm. Food for thought.

As to pedobaptism it is not scriptural. Administering baptism to a baby/person who is unable to understand it's significance is pointless. The water is not what remits sin. It is the individual's obedience to the God given command in association with Jesus' sacrifice that brings about that reality.
Really equating water to the Blood of Jesus really?
As to pedobaptism it is not scriptural
Did babies toddlers and other youngsters cross the Red Sea?

Act 16:15 And when she was baptized, and her household, she besought us, saying, If ye have judged me to be faithful to the Lord, come into my house, and abide there. And she constrained us.

Do we know there were no kids in Lydia's household?

1Co_1:16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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Mark 16:16 needs a qualifier in order to be understood?
Come on man! Do you live your life like this?
If we want it to equal what Jesus said in John 3.

The qualifier would be baptism of the Holy Spirit. Not water

If we want the bible to contradict itself. then lets add the word water.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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ask you don’t think Jesus taught people the right way to be saved because he taught us to stop Sinning Feb and taught us how to live right ? You equate this with not having faith to obey God and what he said will save our souls ……that isn’t faith ?
Jesus told us to stop sinning?

I guess John did not get the memo.

"If we say we have no sin, we decieve ourself. and there is no truth in us"

Now if you want to be decieved.. feel free
 

Everlasting-Grace

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Dec 18, 2021
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You're not quite right. Read it carefully. He OBEYED

Hebrews 11:8

8By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went.
He was saved BEFORE he obeyed.

Nice try..

He obeyed BECAUSE he was saved, Not to get saved..
 

DJT_47

Well-known member
Oct 20, 2022
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You err concerning Matt 7:21-23. Jesus doesn't tell them to depart for their actions, but because He never knew them. This is why I asked you what it means to be in Christ.

Can you tell me in your own words what it means to be...in Christ?
Here's a paper of mine on this very subject "in Christ" posted previously and elsewhere

"In Christ": What does it really mean?

The words “in Christ” and similar, i.e.; “in Jesus Christ”, “in Christ Jesus”, “in him’, are used ad nauseam within the Christian world with hardly anyone ever giving any thought whatsoever as to what the words really mean or entail, thus relegating them to nothing more than Christian “buzz words” that sound good and Christian-like.

So what do these words really mean? What does it mean to be “in Christ” and how does one get “in Christ” or into Christ? Is there a specific way stated in the bible? Are there unique benefits for being “in Christ” once one has achieved that state of being “in him”? Are there benefits available to those not being “in Christ”? Can you receive spiritual blessings without being “in Christ”?

These are logical questions that should be asked or considered when one sees or uses these or similar words inferring the same.

There are 146 references in the New Testament (may not be all inclusive, but close if not) using these exact or similar words as those mentioned above. If mentioned that frequently and to that extent, it must be of great importance, so likewise, all should render like importance to these words when using them, clearly understanding what they truly mean and entail.

Consider the suffix “ian” attached to the word “Christ” to become the word Christian; what does "ian" attached to the end a word mean or indicate? One of its meanings is 'from or belonging to'. As it pertains to Christ, it indicates that a Christian is from or belonging to, or in other words, owned by Christ! It should be noted too that the word “Christian” doesn’t mean a believer in or follower of Christ, but rather really means owned by Christ. So, you could be a believer in and follower of Jesus, practice some form of “Christian” religious worship, be devout, moral, etc. etc, but not be owned by Him, not “in him”.

Note that the bible says the following:

1 Cor 6:20 "For ye are bought with a price:"

Acts 20:28 “Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood."

The above clearly states that Christ purchased or bought the church with His own blood, so it's clear that Christians, those owned by Christ, those that are part of his body (the church), have been bought and paid for by his blood which was the price he paid for them who are now “in him”. Therefore, those that are “in” the church are His, and are “in him”.

What are some of the benefits that being owned by or “in Christ” bestowed upon you that are unable to be conferred in any other way according to scripture?

• Be saved, receive redemption, have your sins remitted and added to the Lord’s body which is the church
• Be buried/planted with Him in the likeness of his death thus enabling like resurrection
• Put on Christ and become a Christian and child of God
• Receive the Holy Spirit, spiritual gifts, blessings, have hope, and be made alive in Him

So, how do you become owned by, “in Christ”, and part of the church? The fact of the matter is, there is one specific way mentioned in the bible as to what one must do to be “in Christ” as well as benefits for being “in him” that can only be realized thereby: by baptism.

Rom 6:3 “Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death”?

Gal 3:26/27 “For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ”.

1st Cor 12:13 “For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.

Rom 6:4 “Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life”.

Col 2:12 “Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead”.

Rom 6:5 “For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection”:

Acts 2:38 “Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost”. 41 “Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls”. 47 “Praising God, and having favour with all the people. And the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved.”

• Christ’s body is the church of which He is the head (Col 1:18, Eph 5:23);
• You become part of the church by becoming a part of His body. You become part of His body by being baptized into it.
• In it (His body, the church), you obtain spiritual blessings (Eph 1:3).
• Are you really a Christian without being part of His body, the church, which you are added to upon being baptized (Acts 2:41, 47)?
• If you’re not buried with Him through baptism, can you then still be raised with Him?
 

Cameron143

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Mar 1, 2022
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Here's a paper of mine on this very subject "in Christ" posted previously and elsewhere

"In Christ": What does it really mean?

The words “in Christ” and similar, i.e.; “in Jesus Christ”, “in Christ Jesus”, “in him’, are used ad nauseam within the Christian world with hardly anyone ever giving any thought whatsoever as to what the words really mean or entail, thus relegating them to nothing more than Christian “buzz words” that sound good and Christian-like.

So what do these words really mean? What does it mean to be “in Christ” and how does one get “in Christ” or into Christ? Is there a specific way stated in the bible? Are there unique benefits for being “in Christ” once one has achieved that state of being “in him”? Are there benefits available to those not being “in Christ”? Can you receive spiritual blessings without being “in Christ”?

These are logical questions that should be asked or considered when one sees or uses these or similar words inferring the same.

There are 146 references in the New Testament (may not be all inclusive, but close if not) using these exact or similar words as those mentioned above. If mentioned that frequently and to that extent, it must be of great importance, so likewise, all should render like importance to these words when using them, clearly understanding what they truly mean and entail.

Consider the suffix “ian” attached to the word “Christ” to become the word Christian; what does "ian" attached to the end a word mean or indicate? One of its meanings is 'from or belonging to'. As it pertains to Christ, it indicates that a Christian is from or belonging to, or in other words, owned by Christ! It should be noted too that the word “Christian” doesn’t mean a believer in or follower of Christ, but rather really means owned by Christ. So, you could be a believer in and follower of Jesus, practice some form of “Christian” religious worship, be devout, moral, etc. etc, but not be owned by Him, not “in him”.

Note that the bible says the following:

1 Cor 6:20 "For ye are bought with a price:"

Acts 20:28 “Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood."

The above clearly states that Christ purchased or bought the church with His own blood, so it's clear that Christians, those owned by Christ, those that are part of his body (the church), have been bought and paid for by his blood which was the price he paid for them who are now “in him”. Therefore, those that are “in” the church are His, and are “in him”.

What are some of the benefits that being owned by or “in Christ” bestowed upon you that are unable to be conferred in any other way according to scripture?

• Be saved, receive redemption, have your sins remitted and added to the Lord’s body which is the church
• Be buried/planted with Him in the likeness of his death thus enabling like resurrection
• Put on Christ and become a Christian and child of God
• Receive the Holy Spirit, spiritual gifts, blessings, have hope, and be made alive in Him

So, how do you become owned by, “in Christ”, and part of the church? The fact of the matter is, there is one specific way mentioned in the bible as to what one must do to be “in Christ” as well as benefits for being “in him” that can only be realized thereby: by baptism.

Rom 6:3 “Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death”?

Gal 3:26/27 “For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ”.

1st Cor 12:13 “For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.

Rom 6:4 “Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life”.

Col 2:12 “Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead”.

Rom 6:5 “For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection”:

Acts 2:38 “Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost”. 41 “Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls”. 47 “Praising God, and having favour with all the people. And the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved.”

• Christ’s body is the church of which He is the head (Col 1:18, Eph 5:23);
• You become part of the church by becoming a part of His body. You become part of His body by being baptized into it.
• In it (His body, the church), you obtain spiritual blessings (Eph 1:3).
• Are you really a Christian without being part of His body, the church, which you are added to upon being baptized (Acts 2:41, 47)?
• If you’re not buried with Him through baptism, can you then still be raised with Him?
I appreciate the time and effort you took to share this information. But I was actually asking the question not to get information on the subject but to better understand the particular understanding of the gentleman who I addressed. But thanks again.
 

Inquisitor

Well-known member
Mar 17, 2022
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"Saved by faith" is an abbreviation of the doctrine below.

Ephesians 2:8-9
For by grace you have been saved through faith; and this is not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not a result of works, so that no one may boast.

I totally agree....now what about the "alone" part you keep bringing up.
The "alone" part means that we cannot co-contribute to that divine reconciliation. The lamb was sacrificed on our behalf, as the law states.

When we believe in Jesus we receive the Holy Spirit. Only after being filled with the Holy Spirit, we can then bear fruit.

So logically, we cannot do anything of merit (fruit) until we are sealed in the Holy Spirit.

If you are sealed by the Holy Spirit, then you are saved. And this is before you can bear any of the fruit of the Holy Spirit.

Give Jesus all the glory!
 

Wansvic

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Nov 27, 2018
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Oxymoron. It's either trusting in Jesus and His sacrifice that brings the reality of having one's sin remitted or it's baptism that brings the reality of having one's sin remitted. You can't have it both ways. Luke 24:47 doesn't even mention baptism. Repentance (implied in belief/faith) is unto the remission of sins. (Acts 3:19; Acts 5:31; 11:17,18; Acts 26:18; Romans 3:24-26) You fail miserably at properly harmonizing scripture with scripture and are a one string banjo: Water baptism - plink, plink.

Same old broken record of eisegesis. Roman Catholics, Mormons, Oneness Pentecostals and other cults and false religions share your same biased beliefs on water baptism. You can't even see the red flag.

You have no answers. Only bias and eisegesis. Biblical hermeneutics is not a journey down a rabbit hole. You just don't get it. :(
There really is no need to be rude. We definitely disagree. Enough said.
 

Ted01

Well-known member
May 14, 2022
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For me personally, submitting to water baptism in the name of Jesus had nothing to do with pride. Years after receiving the indwelling of the Holy Ghost/Spirit, I became aware of the scriptures indicating the apostles consistently administered water baptism in the name of Jesus. I obeyed the command, and was rebaptized because God's word indicated it was necessary for everyone. (Luke 24:47, Acts 2:38, Acts 19:1-7, Acts 10:43, 47-48) I have to say no one was more surprised than I at the revelation that ensued. I didn't go looking for baptism scriptures they just began to jump off the page no matter what book of the bible I decided to read at a given time. The puzzle pieces one by one evidenced the truth, and continue to do so.

Matthew 7:23 applies to individual's Jesus never knew. Surely, there is no question that Jesus knows those who submit to being buried with Him through baptism.
I appreciate when some shares their personal experience... their testimony. I wouldn't argue against those. Thank you!

Nevertheless, I think that we both know that there have been many folks throughout history who have been baptized, but aren't going to be in Heaven, right? So, I wonder if your experience might have a touchpoint of Faith? Not necessarily something that every Believer should expect to experience?
 

DJT_47

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Oct 20, 2022
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How can faith be coupled with belief?

The Koine Greek word for "faith" is pistis.

The Koine Greek word for "belief" is also pistis.

Therefore, faith cannot be coupled with belief.
If you believe, you'll have faith that the Lord is who and what he is and can do what he says such as save your soul. Based on that, your belief and faith will cause you to be obedient and do what's required of you so that you may be saved. Read the account of the Ethiopian eunuch. He heard, he believed, he confessed his belief, and did what was required of him to be saved by being baptized into Christ. Pretty simple, eh?
 

Lamar

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May 21, 2023
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The "alone" part means that we cannot co-contribute to that divine reconciliation. The lamb was sacrificed on our behalf, as the law states.

When we believe in Jesus we receive the Holy Spirit. Only after being filled with the Holy Spirit, we can then bear fruit.

So logically, we cannot do anything of merit (fruit) until we are sealed in the Holy Spirit.

If you are sealed by the Holy Spirit, then you are saved. And this is before you can bear any of the fruit of the Holy Spirit.

Give Jesus all the glory!
The "alone" part means that we cannot co-contribute to that divine reconciliation. The lamb was sacrificed on our behalf, as the law states. And explain how being baptized "co-contributes to that divine reconciliation".

So logically, we cannot do anything of merit (fruit) until we are sealed in the Holy Spirit. If you are sealed by the Holy Spirit, then you are saved. And this is before you can bear any of the fruit of the Holy Spirit. Does the Bible not say we are given the Gift of the Holy Spirit at our baptism.
 

Lamar

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May 21, 2023
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Actually, I am obsessed with the gospel of Christ which is the power of God unto salvation to everyone that BELIEVES.. (Romans 1:16) My sins have already been remitted several years ago when I repented and believed the gospel. (Acts 3:19; 10:43; 11:17,18; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18 etc..) and new without a doubt that I had become born again. I was water baptized the next morning in order to signify being buried with Christ in death and raised with Him to walk in newness of life. Praise God! :)

Salvation by faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18) is not in harmony with salvation by water baptism. You would obviously walk around mountains of grace (Romans 5:1-2; Ephesians 2:8,9) in order to find water. It's a shame that human pride will not allow you to place your faith in Jesus Christ alone for salvation. (Romans 4:5-6; 2 Timothy 3:15) Instead, you turn to supplements, namely, (baptismal salvation). You need to place your faith in the Savior God instead of the water god.

In regard to your pet verse (Acts 2:38) I properly harmonized scripture with scripture before reaching my conclusion on doctrine.
See posts #355 and #401. Acts 10:43-47 negates your biased interpretation of Acts 2:38. *Hermeneutics.
There is no reason to not accept Acts 10:43-47 and Acts 2:38 at face value, they are already in harmony. You feel the need to "harmonize" these verses to fit your faith alone regeneration theology.

You cannot accept Acts 2:38 at face value because Acts 2:38 does not "harmonize" with your theology.

Your admission that you need to "properly harmonize scripture" is evidence of a church bias. The verse must go thru your harmony filter.

It is not our job to harmonize scripture. Our job is to simply obey the commands of God and not feel the need to cross-reference Him.

If God tells me to wash, I will wash.

I will not be so impudent as to ask God to wash in what.
 

mailmandan

Senior Member
Apr 7, 2014
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There is no reason to not accept Acts 10:43-47 and Acts 2:38 at face value, they are already in harmony. You feel the need to "harmonize" these verses to fit your faith alone regeneration theology.

You cannot accept Acts 2:38 at face value because Acts 2:38 does not "harmonize" with your theology.

Your admission that you need to "properly harmonize scripture" is evidence of a church bias. The verse must go thru your harmony filter.

It is not our job to harmonize scripture. Our job is to simply obey the commands of God and not feel the need to cross-reference Him.

If God tells me to wash, I will wash.

I will not be so impudent as to ask God to wash in what.
At face value or "on the surface," Acts 10:43-47 and Acts 2:38 are not in harmony. Just like at face value or "on the surface," Romans 4:2-3 and James 2:21,24 are not in harmony. Yet once we properly interpret these passages of scripture in context, they do harmonize.

It is our job to be diligent to present ourself approved to God as a worker who does not need to be ashamed, accurately handling the word of truth. (2 Timothy 2:15)

Your church bias results in flawed hermeneutics. I have obeyed the command to be water baptized AFTER I believed the gospel and was saved.
 

DJT_47

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Oct 20, 2022
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the two criminals on the cross weren't baptized, unless you mean holy spirit baptism.
Here's another post of mine which addresses your erroneous understanding of the thief on the cross. You're not alone, but this should clarify it for you.
The thief on the cross misconceptions

Post #1
Post Thu Oct 20, 2022 5:10 pm
I continually encounter people trying to justify that baptism is not an absolute necessity for one's salvation by use (erroneously) of the thief on the cross as justification, as he was not baptized but yet saved by the Lord, which is true! BUT, the error in this is the lack of understanding of the scriptures. You must read and understand Hebrews 9:15-17 which clarifies why the thief on the cross was saved by Jesus without being baptized. Christ was still alive when this occurred meaning it was done while the old testament or covenant was still in effect; the new testament had not yet been established because Christ had not yet died. And since the Lord was still alive no one could possibly be baptized into Christ under NT salvation criteria. Baptism did not become a requirement as part of salvation until the new testament began which was after the death of Christ. Jesus forgave the thief on the cross no different than he forgave others during his earthly ministry, such as the woman caught in the act of adultery as recorded in John 8. Baptism should not even be an issue when discussing the thief on the cross, but unfortunately always is, but in error.

Hebrews 9:15-17

15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

16 For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.

17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.
 

Lamar

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May 21, 2023
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At face value or "on the surface," Acts 10:43-47 and Acts 2:38 are not in harmony. Just like at face value or "on the surface," Romans 4:2-3 and James 2:21,24 are not in harmony. Yet once we properly interpret these passages of scripture in context, they do harmonize.

It is our job to be diligent to present ourself approved to God as a worker who does not need to be ashamed, accurately handling the word of truth. (2 Timothy 2:15)

It is our job to be diligent to present ourself approved to God as a worker who does not need to be ashamed, accurately handling the word of truth. (2 Timothy 2:15) I have obeyed the command to be water baptized AFTER I believed the gospel and was saved.
At face value or "on the surface," Acts 10:43-47 and Acts 2:38 are not in harmony. There is nothing in these two verses to suggest that they are contradicting each other. You see contradiction because it is not lining up with your faith alone regeneration theology.

Just like at face value or "on the surface," Romans 4:2-3 and James 2:21,24 are not in harmony. Again, you are seeing contradiction because of your church bias. Paul is speaking against the notion that someone can earn salvation by merit. Amen! James is speaking of a dead faith void of the obvious signs of regeneration. They are simply not related.

Yet once we properly interpret these passages of scripture in context, they do harmonize. In other words, when you filter the verse thru your church bias.

It is our job to be diligent to present ourself approved to God as a worker who does not need to be ashamed, accurately handling the word of truth. (2 Timothy 2:15) Agreed but not relevant.

Your church bias results in flawed hermeneutics. I have read a number of your posts. You seem to bring up hermeneutics a lot yet break many of its rules.

I have obeyed the command to be water baptized AFTER I believed the gospel and was saved. Personal testimony has no place in hermeneutics.
 

timemeddler

Active member
Jul 13, 2023
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Here's another post of mine which addresses your erroneous understanding of the thief on the cross. You're not alone, but this should clarify it for you.
The thief on the cross misconceptions

Post #1
Post Thu Oct 20, 2022 5:10 pm
I continually encounter people trying to justify that baptism is not an absolute necessity for one's salvation by use (erroneously) of the thief on the cross as justification, as he was not baptized but yet saved by the Lord, which is true! BUT, the error in this is the lack of understanding of the scriptures. You must read and understand Hebrews 9:15-17 which clarifies why the thief on the cross was saved by Jesus without being baptized. Christ was still alive when this occurred meaning it was done while the old testament or covenant was still in effect; the new testament had not yet been established because Christ had not yet died. And since the Lord was still alive no one could possibly be baptized into Christ under NT salvation criteria. Baptism did not become a requirement as part of salvation until the new testament began which was after the death of Christ. Jesus forgave the thief on the cross no different than he forgave others during his earthly ministry, such as the woman caught in the act of adultery as recorded in John 8. Baptism should not even be an issue when discussing the thief on the cross, but unfortunately always is, but in error.

Hebrews 9:15-17

15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

16 For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.

17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.
Why are you replying to this again?