Appreciate the response. A few comments:
- I agree that we use Scripture to interpret Scripture. As you've done, I also use Lexicons - several of them - and other tools to help define and translate words.
- Since you linked me to a Bible Study site that looks to have Thayer's and Strongs and maybe a few other tools, and since I have access to many more tools, I'll say that we also have to be diligent when using them because some Lexicons can also be giving us some theological definitions.
- Reading Thayer's, which I have on my system, I still do not see the need for "work out" and comparing to the Latin word. If I simply paraphrase its paraphrased translation, I could come up with "make every effort (work) to obtain (accomplish) salvation. It looks to me like Thayer's is trying to keep from translating in a way that could be taken as "works salvation". But I don't like translators to protect me based upon their theological traditions. I just want to know what the Texts says, so I learned Greek.
Excellent points.
One thing I've learned through the years, having studied Thayer, his life and his leanings in the arena of Universalism, and the many things written by other scholars about his work to bring about his Lexicon, SOME of his choices in how he words definitions still have the taint of doctrinal leanings. His work is lauded by many lingual scholars as a masterpiece of unbias, with which I agree in most of what I have encountered, but he does make copious cross references to other writers across a broad range, from ancient to more modern, all of which have their leanings as well.
I'm wanting to focus that upon this particular item we are discussing. Thayer seems to see the definition as being works TOWARD, or to OBTAIN salvation, his seeming interpretation of which is inconsistent with Paul's gospel. My dislike of how he worded it is that so many can and do see that as an affirmation of work's-based salvation. How do we accomplish salvation when it was actually Christ who 'obtained' it FOR us? That's my question to Thayer and other scholars who tend toward wording some definitions in a manner that is easily misconstrued as supportive of major doctrines such as works-based salvation.
So, if we're going to stick to the "obtaining" aspect of his wording, then to remain consistent with Paul's gospel, we are left with his meaning being aimed at how, and in what direction, we aim our
faith. It is either the world and it's dogmas, or it is Christ for what He accomplished for us. I didn't mean to convey the idea that I'm of a higher caliber of scholar for languages than Thayer, for I am not. However, I've found myself at times having to temper the defining statements he puts forth so that the constraints of meaning that I see in them remains consistent with a more systematic approach that allows for a broader range of scripture to focus in on borders that constrain our understanding of his meaning so that we are then able to see its continuity with the systematic constraints as mentioned.
"Cleave" is one such English word that can so easily be misconstrued in polar opposites of meaning. One can take it as splitting in two, or to cleave one to another into a singular whole. Context is a massively useful tool for understanding which applies, but when that fails, then I gravitate toward the systematic approach so that it can be boiled down to the actual meaning.
Sorry to belabor the point, but it seemed necessary to go into more depth on this, considering the importance of biblical salvation as handed over to Paul first in order to rule out the "any other gospel" that, although true to those TO whom it was addressed by Peter and James, we must differentiate that other gospel from the one given to Paul and TO us today under the Gospel of Grace.
- Paul did write what you say. Paul also wrote Philippians. He also wrote other things about Faith, Grace and Salvation, and all of the Text needs to be in agreement re: these things.
- I haven't read all of what you've been writing, but I am a bit uncomfortable with some of the wording I'm seeing.
Well said, and I welcome your thoughts.
- What does "obtaining salvation" mean? Does it mean entering into God's Salvation Plan by His grace through Faith not by works? Does it mean something else? Is "salvation" spoken of in just this entering (or just in the past tense like "save by grace through faith not by works) or is salvation spoken of in other tenses also?
- Unless the just above question is answered, "by faith, and nothing else" becomes worthy of questions.
- I'll skip the born again statement for now and stick with the above.
- I do agree that the good works are "after the fact" or subsequent to coming to truly believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God which means He is YHWH's KING, the Only Absolute Ruler, etc. And by "truly believe" I mean we are submitted to who He is.
- What I'm not sure is whether or not we see salvation the same way. The way I see salvation from the Text, I have zero issues with accepting the greater Lexical evidence for the way I translated "accomplish our salvation" in Phil2 and I have no concerns for running afoul of any "works salvation" issues as Paul speaks of such things.
- Do you view salvation as only past tense for the Christian or do you see salvation as a process that includes such things as renewing the mind as you pointed out?
We can indeed pick apart various terms and spend days and weeks discussing the semantics of it all. My study of the first century Church peoples and cultures pretty much sealed my understanding of "salvation" as to what chord it struck in their minds. In a nut shell, it boiled down to two aspects for me:
1) The question of "How long does one have to spend atoning for just one of the tens of thousands of sins we all commit in life?" Given that it would be an eternal endeavor in relation to God's perfect justice, never satisfying the perfect justice of God for us to be able to atone for even just one sin, no measure, then, of suffering on our part could ever be sufficient for payment.
2) Ransom. That is a concept with which the ancients were VERY aware and understanding for its implications. Deliverance, to them, was indeed a powerful tone that harmonized with the chords of their understanding. Christ paying the ransom for our guilt is a major, relatable image in their vernaculars.
So, when our illustrious Bible Cemeteries teach the plethora of defining concepts about salvation, convoluting it with not only direct, but also indirectly relatable concepts, the confusions in the minds of students are inevitable, thus leading to many of the existing, and perhaps even new, diversions away from the historic, ancient meaning in how the ancients saw it all in their mind's eye.
Granted: The ancients saw many things that do not at all mesh with modern, Western ideologies and conceptual constraints. That is the only reason I delved into that study in order to try and understand the meanings behind the Greek words of choice the Lord spoke, His apostles spoke and that Paul spoke and wrote, especially in relation to the Judaizers who were not even OF the council of the apostles and elders in Jerusalem, and who tried to convert into Judaism the Churches Paul had planted.
Granted, I'm still a novice in relation to those who have Th.D's and Ph.D's in the various fields of which we are discussing, but I also have seen many a historian allow themselves to become influenced in their interpretations of history with modern, doctrinal liberalism, from which replacement theology reared its ugly heads, like a multi-headed dragon devouring the masses of willfully ignorant morsels awaiting their fate.
Thank you for your thoughts and input. I very much appreciate it all.
MM