And you know what "PERFECT INDICATIVE" means...
It can mean more than you are aware of. This is why consulting actual experts in Greek Grammar is important.
Barnes:
The phrase “at hand,” means near. Grotius supposes that it denotes that same year, and refers for proof to Rom_8:38; 1Co_3:22; Gal_1:4. Heb_9:9. If so, the attempt to fix the day was an early indication of the desire to determine the very time of his appearing - a disposition which has been so common since, and which has led into so many sad mistakes.
Gill:
as that the day of Christ is at hand;
or is at this instant just now coming on; as if it would be within that year, in some certain month, and on some certain day in it ; which notion the apostle would have them by no means give into, for these reasons, because should Christ not come,
as there was no reason to believe he would in so short a time , they would be tempted to disbelieve his coming at all, at least be very indifferent about it
JFB:
is at hand — rather, “is immediately imminent,” literally, “is present”; “is instantly coming.” Christ and His apostles always taught that the day of the Lord’s coming is at hand; and it is not likely that Paul would imply anything contrary here; what he denies is, that it is so immediately imminent, instant, or present, as to justify the neglect of everyday worldly duties. Chrysostom, and after him Alford, translates, “is (already) present” (compare 2Ti_2:18), a kindred error. But in 2Ti_3:1, the same Greek verb is translated “come.” Wahl supports this view. The Greek is usually used of actual presence;
but is quite susceptible of the translation, “is all but present.”
RWP:
Perfect active indicative of enistēmi, old verb, to place in, but intransitive in this tense to stand in or at
or near.
