How do you get saved?

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Beckworth

Active member
May 15, 2019
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This makes no sense. First, second and third person has to do with PRONOUNS. You said Repent is written in second person plural. The only pronoun in t the first part of that sentence is the UNDERSTOOD you. It’s an imperitive sentence and the subject is not stated but understood. (you) Repent. That is definitely


What proof? Did I miss it? I haven’t seen any.
“Receives” is still a present tense verb.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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This makes no sense. First, second and third person has to do with PRONOUNS. You said Repent is written in second person plural. The only pronoun in t the first part of that sentence is the UNDERSTOOD you. It’s an imperitive sentence and the subject is not stated but understood. (you) Repent. That is definitely
Yes, you repent, a way to say it in the old english would be to say repent ye (ye being the plural form of you) if we go to the older english text. we do see the pluyral word used, and YE will recieve the gift of the spirit) The gift of the spirit is based on repenting, Not being baptized. those who were water baptized in vs 41 already recieved remmision of sin, and the gift of the spirit
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
59,813
29,193
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What proof? Did I miss it? I haven’t seen any.
So when Jesus spoke of people receiving Him in the future it did not include you. Got it.

“Receives” is still a present tense verb.
It happens present tense for those who receive Him.

But those words were spoken by Jesus two thousand years ago about future events.

That means future tense also, just as I said.

Not much point belaboring this further.
 

Lamar

Active member
May 21, 2023
909
133
43
This is odd thinking

If I say that in order to recieve something, I have to do this one thing. I do nto need to add the word alone.

In John 3: 15 - 18 - Jesus said it is through faith. He does not mention any other means, hence he does not need to add the word alone to know. it is by faith alone

Matt 16 is not an issue. Jesus did not contradict himself. we have two things here

1. it could be spirit baptism.. Which is automatic and happens the moment a person believes
2. Condemnation is based on non belief, not faith but not baptized.
3. there is a more than average possibility it is not even the word of god but added much later

so in any case. It does not prove your point
Here is the verse:

John 3:15-18
New International Version

15 that everyone who believes may have eternal life in him.”
16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. 18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.

This verse is not in any way, shape or form written in the definitive. It is rather general in nature, it is your theology blinders that is not letting you see this simple truth. You see these verses as explicit and all encompassing because you need them to be but it is far from it.
 

Mem

Senior Member
Sep 23, 2014
7,121
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Sorry, but just because you say so is not proof. That sentence proves nothing because the verb “receives” is still in present tense. You have no proof.
The Greek verb used is in the form Aorist Infinitive Active:

retrieved by google;
The aorist infinitive active in grammar refers to the following:
  1. Derived from the Greek adjective ἀόριστος, meaning “without boundaries” or “unbounded”1.
  2. It describes a past action without further definition or qualification1.
  3. It does not express progressive aspect and presents the action expressed by the verb as a completed unit with a beginning and end23.
 

Lamar

Active member
May 21, 2023
909
133
43
See your still confused, and still refusing to go and see and still stuck on the english text.
Stuck in the English???

So all the English translations got it wrong? But you got it right. Kudos.

So what about all the others translations in languages besides English? Are they wrong also?

I can tell you this, the following translations have the standard understanding of Acts 2:38 as in English.

Spanish French German Flemish Arabic Romanian Vietnamese Turkish Portuguese Dutch Cantonese Russian Polish Hindi Tamil Japanese

I suspect you are simply blinded by a theology.

Or maybe you are the greatest Greek scholar of all time.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
5,843
1,854
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Here is the verse:

John 3:15-18
New International Version

15 that everyone who believes may have eternal life in him.”
16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him. 18 Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son.

This verse is not in any way, shape or form written in the definitive. It is rather general in nature, it is your theology blinders that is not letting you see this simple truth. You see these verses as explicit and all encompassing because you need them to be but it is far from it.
Yes lets look at the conversation

1. Jesus said, unless you are born again, you will not see the kingdom of God.
2. Nicodemus asks, How can these things Be.

3. jesus answer.

1. Like moses lifted the serpent, so too must the son of man be lifted up that whoever believes will not perish, but have eternal life. for God so loved the world. that whoever believes will not perish but has eternal life. He who believes is not condemned, He who does not believe is condemned already

2. The context is being born again, why must we be born again, Because we are dead. that is a definitive fact.

3. The promise is to who? The world. For God so loved the world.. everyone - That is definitive, why? Everyone in the world is dead.

4. Who are the beneficiaries (who is born again or made alive?) whoever..

a. Whoever places their FAITH in Jesus. this is definitive..
b. Whoever places their faith - This is definitive - its not a suggestion, it is a command.
c. He who believes, as apposed to he who does nto believe - again, this is definitive,
5. What do they receive.

a. They will never perish - this is not a suggestion, it is not something that may happen, Jesus said this is a fact. it is definitive, they will never die
b. They have eternal life, ie, they will live forever, it is no something that might happen, it will happen, it is definitive. it is all based on the promise of God.

6. the other definitive thing, is that nothing else is involved. I am not made alive because I was water baptized or did any other work. I will not live forever because I was water baptized or did any other work this is also a definitive statement.

So you are wrong in your assumption and statement
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
5,843
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Stuck in the English???
Well yes

1. The new English translations are not quite as clear as the old English ones.

and even then, none of them really portray what peter said.. The bible was not written in english, Which by the way, is a flawed language in itself.

So all the English translations got it wrong? But you got it right. Kudos.

So what about all the others translations in languages besides English? Are they wrong also?

I can tell you this, the following translations have the standard understanding of Acts 2:38 as in English.

Spanish French German Flemish Arabic Romanian Vietnamese Turkish Portuguese Dutch Cantonese Russian Polish Hindi Tamil Japanese

I suspect you are simply blinded by a theology.

Or maybe you are the greatest Greek scholar of all time.
I am blinded by theology or you are?

Let write it using the rules of language.

And peter said, all of you repent (2nd person plural) , and let He she be baptized (third person singular) for the remission of sin, and all of you (2nd person plural) will receive the gift of the spirit.

Now tell me, How does that make sense?
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
5,247
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Once again, if faith alone is the absolutely only thing required for salvation, then we would expect Jesus to mention alone or only in the following verses. (3:15,16,18; 5:24;6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) Yet what is the one 1 word that Jesus does not mention 9 different times in each of these complete statements "Alone." What happened to only faith?

Mark 16:16 - Whoever believes (believes only? NO) and is baptized shall be saved but he who does not believe will be condemned.

Your argument is with Mark 16:16 and not with me.

Many will present general verses about the need for faith as proof texts for non-obedience salvation in a effort to force the mandatory allegiance to faith alone regeneration theology. These are the modern day Pharisees that cherry pick generalities and label them as definitive. Branding anyone who disagrees as a works-salvationist. Any high school English student can see the forced understanding of such a notion. No one presents an argument based on general statements masquerading them as explicit all-encompassing commands. In other words, these texts only prove that faith is one of the associated requirements for salvation, rather than the absolutely only thing needed for salvation.
Also relevant to the topic is Peter's answer to those who believed in Jesus. When they asked, "What must we do?" Peter answer was NOT you don't have to do anything else, you're good, you believe in Jesus. His answer to them and all who stood by was, "Repent and be baptized everyone of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sin and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." (Acts 2:36-42) It was at the point that they believed and obeyed that they were added onto the body of Christ.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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Also relevant to the topic is Peter's answer to those who believed in Jesus. When they asked, "What must we do?" Peter answer was NOT you don't have to do anything else, you're good, you believe in Jesus. His answer to them and all who stood by was, "Repent and be baptized everyone of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sin and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." (Acts 2:36-42) It was at the point that they believed and obeyed that they were added onto the body of Christ.
the fact that he had to tell them to repent in the first place shows that they had issues.

They were not saved because they were baptized. they were baptized because they got saved
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
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Acts 10:43 All the prophets testify about Him (Jesus) that all who believe in Him receives forgiveness of sins through His Name.
What is meant by believers will receive forgiveness of sins "through His name? All those who obey water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ receive remission of sin according to scripture.
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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What is meant by believers will receive forgiveness of sins "through His name? All those who obey water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ receive remission of sin according to scripture.
Yet in this passage, water baptism is not mentioned

again, your stuck on a few verses.. There are far to many that counter your view.
 

Lamar

Active member
May 21, 2023
909
133
43
Well yes

1. The new English translations are not quite as clear as the old English ones.

and even then, none of them really portray what peter said.. The bible was not written in english, Which by the way, is a flawed language in itself.



I am blinded by theology or you are?

Let write it using the rules of language.

And peter said, all of you repent (2nd person plural) , and let He she be baptized (third person singular) for the remission of sin, and all of you (2nd person plural) will receive the gift of the spirit.

Now tell me, How does that make sense?
Once again you are blinded by what you want the verse to mean.

You are not going to convince anyone that you have uncovered the error of all the Bibles that have been printed.

There are no Bibles, old or new, English or not that translate this verse in the manner that you suggest.

This is just a sad attempt to not accept the Word of God as written and force a carnal man made understanding instead.

You are simply mocking the Word of God with silly and sly composition tricks. The only ones who believe such nonsense are the the ones who want to be deceived.
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
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Adolf Hitler was Baptised in water with a priest saying the words in the name of the father and of the son and of the holy spirit.
I don't think Adolf was a believer.
He clearly did not repent of his sin. Both repentance and being baptized is required. One does not suffice.
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
5,247
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and why it does not say anything about water/wet baptism as this is also a parallel to Matthew 28? Thanks
God gives the Holy Ghost. Jesus' command in Matthew 28 pertains to water baptism. Both water baptism in the name of Jesus, and a separate experience of receiving the Holy Ghost is seen in every detailed conversion account in scripture. (Acts 2:38-41, 8:12-18, 9:17-18, 10:43-48, 19:1-7, 22:16)
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
5,247
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...
1. it could be spirit baptism.. Which is automatic and happens the moment a person believes
...
Scripture refutes what you believe.

The Samaritans received the Holy Ghost/Spirit days after they believed. Acts 8:12-18

Paul received the Holy Ghost days after believing in Jesus. Acts 9:17-18

Paul asked people, "Have ye received the Holy Ghost since you believed?" Acts 19:1-7
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
5,843
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Once again you are blinded by what you want the verse to mean.
I take the verse literally. as written.. I am not the one blinded my friend.

You are not going to convince anyone that you have uncovered the error of all the Bibles that have been printed.
I Am not trying to. All i am doing is proving peter did not say what alot of epople think he said..

There are no Bibles, old or new, English or not that translate this verse in the manner that you suggest.

This is just a sad attempt to not accept the Word of God as written and force a carnal man made understanding instead.

You are simply mocking the Word of God with silly and sly composition tricks. The only ones who believe such nonsense are the the ones who want to be deceived.
lol.. Its ok. Go ahead and think you are justified, saved by your work.

I will not try to stop you. I can;t stop anyone from believing them, i can just try to be used by God to expose the truth to them and others..
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
5,843
1,854
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God gives the Holy Ghost. Jesus' command in Matthew 28 pertains to water baptism. Both water baptism in the name of Jesus, and a separate experience of receiving the Holy Ghost is seen in every detailed conversion account in scripture. (Acts 2:38-41, 8:12-18, 9:17-18, 10:43-48, 19:1-7, 22:16)
Yes

In matt 28, Jesus said make disciples of all nation.

then he said to baptize THEM.

They are already saved..
 

Everlasting-Grace

Well-known member
Dec 18, 2021
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Scripture refutes what you believe.
No it does not

The Samaritans received the Holy Ghost/Spirit days after they believed. Acts 8:12-18

Paul received the Holy Ghost days after believing in Jesus. Acts 9:17-18

Paul asked people, "Have ye received the Holy Ghost since you believed?" Acts 19:1-7
Many people recieved the spirit before they were water baptized.

so YOU have a problem.

Not to mention. John 3 15-18 destroys your concept..
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
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No there is not.

God commanded them in the OT to be circumcised. Yet no one in the OT was saved because they were circumcised. in fact many were saved and were never circumcised. proving it was not a requirement

Same in the NT, God commands us to be baptized in water, But people were saved who were not yet baptized in water. so it is not a requirment.


Well. they will nto be cut of from salvation if they are saved.

No one is saved because they allowed another sinner to immerse them in water
Your understanding is not consistent with the word.

Scripture reveals those who did not obey God's circumcision command were cut off from his people. "He that is born in thy house, and he that is bought with thy money, must needs be circumcised: and my covenant shall be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant. And the uncircumcised man child whose flesh of his foreskin is not circumcised, that soul shall be cut off from his people; he hath broken my covenant." Gen 17:13-14

The biblical record reveals all believers are to repent and be baptized to remit sin, and receive the Holy Ghost as well. There are no accounts of individuals living in the NT that were saved without obeying God's command of water baptism.