That's how I've understood some participating in this thread to be meaning; whereas it seems that others believe the annihilation occurs immediately upon the death of the unbelievers (iow, there will be NO point in time when unbelievers, after having died, will be delivered up [from hell/hades where they will have been since they died] to "STAND" before God at the GWTj [a 'resurrection OF JUDGMENT'] and then at that point [that is, later, AFTER having been in hell/hades] now cast into the lake of fire... that what Rev20:10 states clearly, is only figurative language since it's in the book of Revelation--it won't ACTUALLY happen... according to their viewpoint)...
... that, where Rev20:10 states that "and THEY [the beast-individual-man-aspect, and the false prophet, also human... AND Satan] SHALL BE tormented unto the ages [plural] of the ages [plural]" is only "figurative" (but really, they are [or will have been] "annihilated" instead--according to their viewpoint)