I started reading the Bible for myself back in 1968. Sometime around 1969 I
ran across that passage in 1John 3:9 and it really caught my attention.
As fortune would have it, there was a Protestant elder managing the welding
shop where I worked so I ran it past him to see if he could clarify it for me.
Well; his explanation was pretty much the same as yours and when he
finished I asked him if he was positive the explanation was true. He
answered: What else could it mean?
Well, I was a neophyte at the time so I pretty much had to go along with him
because I just simply didn't know any better. However; in time I discovered
that he was the victim of a logical fallacy, to wit: he assumed that his (and
your) explanation was correct because no one had thus far in his experience
come along with a better take on it.
_
ran across that passage in 1John 3:9 and it really caught my attention.
As fortune would have it, there was a Protestant elder managing the welding
shop where I worked so I ran it past him to see if he could clarify it for me.
Well; his explanation was pretty much the same as yours and when he
finished I asked him if he was positive the explanation was true. He
answered: What else could it mean?
Well, I was a neophyte at the time so I pretty much had to go along with him
because I just simply didn't know any better. However; in time I discovered
that he was the victim of a logical fallacy, to wit: he assumed that his (and
your) explanation was correct because no one had thus far in his experience
come along with a better take on it.
_