Divorce in Catholicism on grounds of adultery

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CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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They teach that it is wrong to murder people in cold blood. Do you disagree with that?

I'd be wary of any news along the lines of LGBT stuff about the pope or the RCCC. 'Woke' media people want to paint the pope as a 'good guy' in their warped eyes, and also present a narrative that the RCC is moving towards adopting the gay agenda.

From a political perspective, conservative Roman Catholics tend to be on the same page on a lot of issues, such as not promoting child castration in the schools.
there are many who teach that, including the JW's, are they authoritative in Biblical understanding and have Salvation denying Jesus is God?


RCC has a figure head as the leader known as the Pope. He has made very clear what he stands for, and the word of God is not one of them.
 

NOV25

Well-known member
Nov 23, 2019
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Now we are looking aa totally different scenario. The issue is no longer adultery/fornication. It is simply divorce in order to marry someone else! That is unacceptable to God.

But here is the exception (Mt 19:9): And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν ὅτι ὃς ἂν ἀπολύσῃ τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ, εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ πορνείᾳ καὶ γαμήσῃ ἄλλην, μοιχᾶται· καὶ ὁ ἀπολελυμένην γαμήσας μοιχᾶται.

According to Thayer's Lexicon πορνείᾳ means "properly, of illicit sexual intercourse in general". The KJV has gone with the literal translation. But the NASB uses several words (which are not an exact translation ): fornication (4), fornications (2), immoralities (1), immorality (16), sexual immorality (1), unchastity (1). "Immorality" focuses on the on the rightness or wrongness, but "illicit sexual intercourse" represents the actual act(s).
Devils advocate continued:

One may be able to force a remarriage permission out of Matthew 5, 19 but Mark 10 and Luke 16 clearly shows ALL remarriage as adultery regardless of the reasoning for divorce.

So in these verses Jesus clearly taught fornication only divorce with all remarriage being adultery right? How do you like them apples? 😉
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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One may be able to force a remarriage permission out of Matthew 5, 19 but Mark 10 and Luke 16 clearly shows ALL remarriage as adultery regardless of the reasoning for divorce.
It does not matter. The EXCEPTION is there in Scripture and all verses must be harmonized. Christ cannot contradict Himself. So here's the summation.

What Christ taught:
NO DIVORCE FOR ANY AND ALL REASONS OTHER THAN UNFAITHFULNESS
(The offended spouse would be free to remarry)

What Paul added under divine inspiration:
IF THE UNBELIEVING SPOUSE LEAVES, THE ABANDONED SPOUSE MAY REMARRY
 

NOV25

Well-known member
Nov 23, 2019
995
390
63
It does not matter. The EXCEPTION is there in Scripture and all verses must be harmonized. Christ cannot contradict Himself. So here's the summation.

What Christ taught:
NO DIVORCE FOR ANY AND ALL REASONS OTHER THAN UNFAITHFULNESS
(The offended spouse would be free to remarry)
Where did Christ teach the offended spouse could remarry? Matthew 5 & 19 does not explicitly give permission for the offended spouse to remarry. However, Mark 10 and Luke 16 explicitly denies ALL remarriage which would include the offended spouse.