Any knowledgeable, reasonable person knows marriage was synonymous with procreation in Jesus' day.
Do you know what "synonymous" means?
Do you know what "procreation" means?
What about married couples who never procreate?
Are they not married in God's eyes?
What about Zacharias and Elisabeth?
Luk 1:5
There was in the days of Herod, the king of Judaea, a certain priest named Zacharias, of the course of Abia: and his wife
was of the daughters of Aaron, and her name
was Elisabeth.
Luk 1:6
And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.
Luk 1:7
And they had no child, because that Elisabeth was barren, and they both were
now well stricken in years.
Zacharias and HIS WIFE Elisabeth were well stricken in years until the time came that they procreated.
Was Luke in error when he called Elisabeth HIS (Zacharias') WIFE prior to her conception (Luke 1:24)?
I mean, according to your assertion, Zacharias and Elisabeth were not married until John the Baptist was conceived and born because marriage and procreation are allegedly synonymous.
Will you continue to claim that your assertion is representative of knowledge and reason?