Jesus rose again?
- Thread starter John146
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The word 'again' has several uses one of which is to introduce a further point for consideration, supporting or contrasting with what has previously been stated. The use of this word was not implying that Jesus had previously fallen and risen and was now in such a position where He, once again, rose.
Rose again, as in back to a living condition; although not in the flesh, but in Spirit?
I did a quick google search on it and the above seems logical.
I never gave this much thought before.
I did a quick google search on it and the above seems logical.
I never gave this much thought before.
I think the verse just means Jesus was risen. It does not imply that Jesus was like a zombie who died then rose again more than once.
Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
John 2:19 KJV
Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
John 2:19 KJV
Jesus had life before His death, and He is predicting that He will once more have life again after His death?
33 And they shall scourge him, and put him to death: and the third day he shall rise again.
Agreed, but you have to admit the word “again” is peculiar.
Maybe it means like the temple. Raise it up the same as before, unchanged like nothing happened? So why is it peculiar? What does it mean?
At first, it may imply that the Lord had once previously risen from the dead and He’s going to rise again from the dead. Obviously it can’t mean rise again from the dead, but rise to life as He previously had life.
Jesus came into this world with life as a baby. Jesus laid down His life for sinful men. Sin did not take His life from Him but He purposefully laid it down. So Jesus took His life up again when He bodily resurrected on the third day.
For the cause of Christ
Roger
For the cause of Christ
Roger
can someone show me which part of this says "again" ?
καὶ ὅτι ἐτάφη καὶ ὅτι ἐγήγερται τῇ τρίτῃ ἡμέρᾳ κατὰ τὰς γραφάς
(1 Corinthians 15:4)
(1 Corinthians 15:4)
interestingly, "rise again" in Luke 18:33 isn't the same word as in 1 Corinthians 15:4. Strong's 450 vs. 1453
(Because it ain't there The translators translated the Greek word egēgertai as "he rose again".
Look at the verse in an interlinear:
Strong's 1453 is used 144 times in the New Testament -- but in the perfect indicative middle or passive third person singular, it is only used 9 times. 1 Corinthians 15:4 looks like the only place the kjv translators inserted "again" when translating this Greek word in this particular grammatical form.
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This is a KJV issue, the Greek literally translated is:
and that he was buried, and that he hath risen on the third day, according to the Writings,
a semi-idiomatic artifact of the English language
Tat is exactly what I was about to say! You took it right off the tip of my tongue!
