W
wondernyan
Guest
I didn't want to resort to a poorly designed website call christianchat.com, but I really wanted to address this and get some responses. I don't know who will respond to this and whether or not he or she is a reliable source. I guess I'll just hope for the best.
Let me preface this by claiming that I am not an expert on the Bible and its words. I may end up writing something that is completely wrong.
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I was trying to sleep, but I was instead thinking of God, the Bible, and Christianity. Mainly the people and their beliefs. I had an epiphany of sorts.
I, of course, believe in God and Jesus one hundred percent - no doubts at all. I am, however, beginning to doubt Christians and what they’re teaching. I’ve been wondering how years of changes in society and the government have altered people’s views on the Bible.
For example, in the Old Testament, women were shunned when they menstruated, right? Of course we do not shun women anymore, even though it was technically a teaching of God. But are women still sinning every month? When did God or Jesus ever say “In so-and-so years, menstruation is no longer a sin”?
Now let’s compare this to homosexuality. As well as menstruation being a “sin”, acting in a homosexual manner was also wrong during that time. So now, why is menstruation natural and non-sinful, while gay people still have to fight for their rights? Jesus said nothing about menstruation. Nor did he say anything about homosexuality.
Therefore, menstruation could still be a sin as well as homosexuality. Or both could be non-sinful. This is my dilemma.
If someone says to me “Menstruation isn’t a sin anymore because it is the 21st century”, can’t I say back “Then neither is homosexuality”?
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I am also not too sure about gay marriage. God defined marriage as “the union of one man and one woman.” He was very specific about this. So is gay marriage a sin? Can homosexuality not be sinful while gay marriage is? Or, similar to menstruation, can the times pass and make all of this invalid? Or can nothing just become “invalid”. Sinful menstruation did, did it not?
—-
Also, I could be completely ignorant and misinformed about everything.
Let me preface this by claiming that I am not an expert on the Bible and its words. I may end up writing something that is completely wrong.
—-
I was trying to sleep, but I was instead thinking of God, the Bible, and Christianity. Mainly the people and their beliefs. I had an epiphany of sorts.
I, of course, believe in God and Jesus one hundred percent - no doubts at all. I am, however, beginning to doubt Christians and what they’re teaching. I’ve been wondering how years of changes in society and the government have altered people’s views on the Bible.
For example, in the Old Testament, women were shunned when they menstruated, right? Of course we do not shun women anymore, even though it was technically a teaching of God. But are women still sinning every month? When did God or Jesus ever say “In so-and-so years, menstruation is no longer a sin”?
Now let’s compare this to homosexuality. As well as menstruation being a “sin”, acting in a homosexual manner was also wrong during that time. So now, why is menstruation natural and non-sinful, while gay people still have to fight for their rights? Jesus said nothing about menstruation. Nor did he say anything about homosexuality.
Therefore, menstruation could still be a sin as well as homosexuality. Or both could be non-sinful. This is my dilemma.
If someone says to me “Menstruation isn’t a sin anymore because it is the 21st century”, can’t I say back “Then neither is homosexuality”?
—-
I am also not too sure about gay marriage. God defined marriage as “the union of one man and one woman.” He was very specific about this. So is gay marriage a sin? Can homosexuality not be sinful while gay marriage is? Or, similar to menstruation, can the times pass and make all of this invalid? Or can nothing just become “invalid”. Sinful menstruation did, did it not?
—-
Also, I could be completely ignorant and misinformed about everything.