God, co-actor in Jesus' sufferings or contributive non-actor?

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May 20, 2025
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#22
Yes. What was Paul sent to do? To was He sent? Keep that which Paul was given to say, to Whom He was to say it to.
Deepseeker
 

DavidLamb

Active member
Feb 21, 2025
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Paignton, Devon, UK
#23
Yes. What was Paul sent to do? To was He sent? Keep that which Paul was given to say, to Whom He was to say it to.
Deepseeker
Although I'm still unsure what your questions have to do with the thread title, which asks whether God was a "co-actor" in the sufferings of His Son, I' ll have a go at answering. Paul was specifically sent to preach the gospel to the Gentiles. Peter was sent mainly to the Jews. But with neither of them was it exclusive. Paul did preach the gospel to Jews living in many of the places he visited on his missionary journeys, and God sent Peter to preach to Cornelius, a Gentile. I don't believe that as Christians today, we have to say (if we are Gentile Christians), "Well, Peter was the apostle to the Jews, so I won't bother with his two letters," or (if we are Jewish Christians), "Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles, so I don't need to read or believe his epistles."
 

Clayman

Active member
May 30, 2021
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#24
Isa 53:10 Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.

God did not inflict any suffering upon Jesus and did not harm Him in any way.

It means God allowed it to happen for our salvation but it was done by the hands of humans.
I don't see the physical suffering and death of Jesus at the hands of men, as the mechanism for our salvation. In fact what we need saved from is not physical death but spiritual death. We need to be rescued from the Lake of fire yet since we are sinners that's where we deserve to go.

If suffering at the hands of men could pay for my sins, could someone other than Christ volunteer to take my place, would that be sufficient?

If physical suffering at the hands of men on a cross is the price that needs paid for my sins, then Ill just pay it myself, sure Ild rather not have to undergo it but hey if it means I have taken and paid the judgment for my sins and have therefore attained eternal life in the resurrection then ill take the punishment myself, the thought of the loveliest of man to walk the earth nay the creator taking my place on a cross if He doesnt have to it would be repulsive to me.

But, He does have to.

For it's Gods judgment that I fear not mans judgment and its Gods judgment that Christ bore for us when God poured out his wroth on Him. The bit that's hard to comprehend is how Christ could bear the spiritual judgment of God, to be separated from the Father and to bear the judgment of the soul. Something mere man cannot inflict upon me.

Isaiah 53:10
King James Version

10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin
 
Sep 24, 2012
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#25
I actually am repenting of my opinion that God did not cause physical harm to Jesus as I am reading Isaiah 53 in a new light and hopefully correctly. If I am correct it could be seen that Jesus' entire sufferings was God-done. God handed him over and supernaturally inflicted his sufferings through men.

Isaiah 53:4-5 King James Version
4 Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.
5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.

There's no language here to say he was not smitten of God when it goes on to say that he was wounded for our transgressions, so I think it is safe to think that his entire suffering was God-done.

Sorry if my opinion bothered anybody, I just kept reading verse 4 and 5 wrong and it threw off my reading of this chapter which I think might have contributed to me coming to the wrong conclusion.