The Scriptural account did not establish a *doctrine* that all should speak in tongues, even though at the initial outpouring of the Spirit all did indeed speak in tongues in the Upper Room or outside it. So this Scriptural account has a specific context, which does not set a precefdent for normal Christian experience.
It was a unique event--I say that because it did not continue as such in the future. Only on limited occasions did it happen.
We are never told that it didn't happen at other times due to disobedience. Only that some forbade speaking in tongues or discouraged it.
So what do the Scriptures actually teach on this? It doesn't teach a doctrine at all in Acts 2 or on the Day of Pentecost, except that accepting Jesus as Messiah brings eternal Salvation. Tongues were a supernatural manifestation attesting to this truth.
What do Scriptures teach on tongues? We are taught elsewhere that Tongues should not be forbidden, that it is a gift of the Spirit given to some, but not to all. It is not a common "Prayer Langage" as Pentecostals teach.
We are taught that in community the tongues speakers should resist being demonstrable and rely more on interpretation in the common vernacular. It continues to manifest supernatural experience both in private, among some, and in community under certain restraints.
As mentioned, God established speaking in tongues for difference purposes. One as evidence the indwelling presence of the Holy Ghost. (100%) And the other as a means of presenting God's message requiring interpretation for a group of believers. (not all operate in these gifts)
In Acts 2, those hearing people speak in languages ask what it means. Some marvel at the miracle, while others mock.
Peter gave a direct answer. This is that which was prophesied by Joel. "This" the "speaking in tongues" that you are now seeing and hearing is what Joel prophesied about. The prophecy is specific, in the last days I will pour out my Spirit. In other words, when you see someone speaking in tongues it means they have received the Holy Spirit as prophesied by Joel.
Some ask, If speaking in tongues is the evidence that accompanies receiving of the Holy Spirit, why doesn't the Bible just plainly say so? The Bible actually does say it plainly; in story form. When the question was asked, what does this speaking in tongues mean? Peter gives them a direct answer straight from Joel's prophecy. So, when you see someone speaking in tongues you know they have received the Holy Spirit.
Five places describe someone actually receiving the Holy Spirit to enter the NT church.
Acts 2, 10, and 19 set the pattern. Each confirms speaking in tongues is the direct evidence of the initial indwelling of the Holy Spirit.
Acts 10 - they heard them speak in tongues. That experience confirmed to Peter and others that the individuals had actually received the Holy Spirit. And as seen elsewhere in scripture nothing other than tongues confirms the initial experience; not believing in Jesus, saying a sinner's prayer, or having strong feelings, etc.
Acts 11 - Peter gives an account of what occurred in Acts 10. He indicates the people spoke in tongues proving they had received the Holy Spirit and as such God intended they be water baptized in the name of Jesus as well.
Acts 19:6-7 (This is the last detailed account some 20+ years after the witness of the truth revealed at Pentecost)
And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
And all the men were about twelve.
A Visible Sign of the Invisible:
Acts 8 - Confirms receiving the Holy Spirit is identifiable.
How could the people be so sure that those who believed and were water baptized had not received the Holy Spirit? And what made the people so sure that the experience had occurred a few days later? (Acts 8:14-19)
Clearly it was not just the laying on of hands that proved the experience occurred. Simon wanted to buy the ability to do what he witnessed when the apostles laid hands on the people. Think about it. There's no need to pay to have the ability to lay hands on a person. It is clear he wanted to buy the power to demonstrate the receiving of the Holy Spirit.
(There must have been a definite, supernatural
sign for Simon the Magician to be impressed enough to
desire it. Simon apparently wanted to buy and use this
miracle in his magical shows; he desired the power to lay
hands on people and have the miraculous sign manifest
itself.) New Birth-Bernard
As revealed elsewhere in scripture, speaking in tongues is the visible sign God chose to reveal when the invisible Holy Spirit initially enters one's body.
God chose the sign. And He certainly does not have to explain Himself. However, some biblical records point to the possible reason why He did it.
1. Tower of Babel = God used tongues as a means to separate people who were disobedient. A reversal of this is seen at Pentecost. God is bringing people back into one body - into unity.
2. James 3 - reveals human beings cannot tame the unruly tongue. However, God can and does when people submit to Him. Speaking in tongues is a conscious act of surrender.
3. There are many external signs when the Holy Spirit is present in an area. As to Pentecost, the wind indicated the Holy Spirit had arrived in the upper room. And flaming tongues sat atop each person revealing that what was about to happen was for all individually.
Speaking in tongues is different in that the sign comes from the inside out after God has taken up residence in one's body.
