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Thank you for the effort in responding with your examples. It does seem that your explanation is more convincing then your examples. If left to itself you would be correct but the flow and form of the Bible has always been mankind obeying God and God blessing mankind because of his obedience...

Please excuse my oversight, I did not notice the post. I will go over them and respond.

Moot??? This is the verse: New International Version For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this is not from yourselves, it is the gift of God—not by works, so that no one can boast. 10 For we are God’s handiwork, created in Christ Jesus to do good works, which God prepared...

I understand your take on the James 2:24 but are there any Bible translations that present the verse in such a way as you understand the verse to mean? If you are correct there should be at least a few.

That is interesting but what about the question?

A interesting take on James 2:24. Do you know of any Bible translations that present the verse in such a way?

When "God draws near an individual" it is after He has searched their heart and mind. (Jeremiah 17:10, 20:12 and Psalm 7:9). God searches the hearts and minds of man. He does not make or change their hearts or minds without their consent. Those who desire this change ask for this change of...

"condescends to them" ??? What does this mean? Does God universally grant this grace to all mankind or just those (few or not) to whom He has pre-ordained? Are the people who are granted (many or few) this revelation able to refuse it? "You don't believe people people don't respond", this...

Here is the verse: John 3:18 New International Version Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because they have not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son. The belief or non-belief in the Son of God is not pre-ordained or even...

You are not very forthright in your comments. You believe that mankind cannot and will not response in a positive manner to God' grace by his own volition. A pre-ordained and non consensual "repentance" is one in name only.

"far more"??? Are you not the person who claims that this grace is limited to the pre-ordained chosen few mentioned in Matthew 22:14? If the gospel is not offered universally to mankind then the gospel is by nature "far less".

Maybe but what does this have to do with the OP.

Because He was the 2nd man born without a earthly father.

Not sure what you are implying by the term "born in Adam" but Genesis 3:20 states that Eve is the mother of all of the living. Genesis 3:20 New International Version Adam named his wife Eve, because she would become the mother of all the living...

This is the verse: Ephesians 2:8-9 New International Version For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this is not from yourselves, it is the gift of God— not by works, so that no one can boast. Are you implying that the "gift of God" is faith in Him or is it God's grace...

As long as we are allowed to use generalities: 1. Fulfill all prophesies. 2. Live a perfect life.

You are simply spewing out metaphysical religious jargon. Again, what are the limits or bounds of "a blood atonement" or "perfect righteousness"? Your unwillingness to address this matter speaks much.

The issue is not "can" God save but "does" God save. It is this verbal sleight of hand that makes you seem disingenuous. The OP is about what are the requirements for salvation in order to be among the chosen few. (Matthew 22:14)

What does this have to do with the question? Your words seem to be rather disingenuous.

Your words say otherwise. Your comments have no bounds hence universalism.