Random Questions; Bible-based answers

RQ: Should Mary be called the mother of God without crediting Joseph for being the father of God?

Mary in the bible is called the mother of Jesus. Although Jesus is fully divine, Mary is never called "Mother of God" in the bible. Joseph was the legal father of Jesus but not His biological Father:

“Now Jesus Himself began His ministry at about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, the son of Heli,” (Lu 3:23 NKJV)

Yes, He was popularly supposed to be the son of Joseph, but remember what Gabriel said to Mary:

“And the angel answered and said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest will overshadow you; therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born will be called the Son of God.” (Lu 1:35 NKJV)

So, do you think the HS had sex with Mary, combining spiritual sperm with her egg?

Are you RC, believing in the immaculate conception?

Does it not make more sense to think that LK 3:23 could just as well have said "...and Mary"?

Don't you think both Joseph and Mary were virginal until after Jesus was born and three years old?

No I don't. How can a spiritual Being have sexual intercourse, a physical thing?

I am not a Roman Catholic, and I certainly don't believe that Mary was conceived immaculately. (It is the conception of Mary that Roman Catholics believe was "immaculate".)

Luke 3:23 is part of a genealogy, going generation by generation via the fathers.

They were both virginal until after Jesus was born:

“Then Joseph, being aroused from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord commanded him and took to him his wife, and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name JESUS.” (Mt 1:24-25 NKJV)

How old Jesus was when they did have intercourse we are not told in the bible.

Re sex: I agree, although with God all things are possible.
Re RC: I agree, and neither was Joseph.
Re LK: Yes, but we should understand that mothers were equally responsible for the genes.
Re three years old: I inferr from MT 2:16-21 that J&M did not produce kids until they returned to Nazareth
after Herod had killed the babies up to two years old in Bethlehem/Ramah.

RQ: Should Mary be called the mother of God without crediting Joseph for being the father of God?

Can eternal God have a mother? No!
He is the very God who created motherhood.
He was eternally being before any mothers existed.

It was Mary's ovum that was utilized by God to only provide a BODY for the eternal soul of Christ to live in.
He could not have a biological human father in the line of Adam.
For sin entered the world through Adam!

It was the Holy Spirit who supplied all the needed genetic material needed to fertilize the ovum of Mary.


For it was through the male's seed that sin entered the world.
But, not a woman's seed!

Hebrews 10:5 reads...


That body was made possible by means of the ovum from Mary!
It was by means of the "seed of the woman"as prophesied from the beginning in Genesis 3:15!



We all need to come to grips with this and stop being befuddled by rationalizations of men.

The Catholic Church (and few others) are dead wrong on this matter.
Mary can not be the mother of God.
For eternal God can not have a mother!
To think so, is opening oneself up to appear stupid to others about who and what God is!
Sorry... but we are to avoid that at all cost.
Not seeking the approval of men, but of God alone.

grace and peace .................

Don't give all of the credit for the first sin to the man.
The Genesis account blames both equally.

Please, try telling us where you see that stated that way? Equally?


The following ironic twist never happened.
But, if Adam refused to eat?
He and Eve could have produced sinless children!

For sin entered the world through one man.
Not through the woman.

That is why God could utilize and fertilize the ovum of Mary to produce a sinless body for Jesus!
And, why Jesus could have no human father!
For the sin nature is passed down through the male sperm!

We need to carefully and quietly think these things over.

grace and peace ...........

GN 3:6-8, "The woman... gave some to her husband, who was with her, and he ate. Then the eyes of both of them were opened,
and they realized they were naked; so they sewed fig leaves together and made coverings for themselves. Then the man and his wife heard the sound of the Lord God as he was walking in the garden in the cool of the day, and they hid from the Lord God among the trees of the garden"

There you have eight indications of equal accountability for sin.

Sin did not enter the world through one woman...
It entered the world through one man.
Even though she was the first sinner.

Jesus came as the second Adam.
As a man.
No need to come as a woman.

There is a difference.
Both sinned.
But only one sinned knowingly.

There is a point to this.
Or, the Bible would not make it a point to mention.

RQ: Should Mary be called the mother of God without crediting Joseph for being the father of God?

Yes, she should be called the mother of God because she gave birth to Christ in the flesh through the Holy Spirit.
So when we say "the mother of God" we mean in the flesh because obviously every Christian knows (or should know) that God has no mother.

You only addressed half of the question.

What's the other half sailor?

What about Joseph? Is he not included in the Albanian crèche?

What about Joseph? Is he not included in the Albanian crèche?

Um i actually wasn't sure why you even asked that question.
You've read the Bible right? You know how Joseph wanted to divorce Mary and the angels told him about the Messiah right?
So because of that, he is not the biological father. The Holy Spirit is.
Mary is the biological mother.

Sorry, what has Albania got to do with Mary and Joseph?

Well, I do not believe the HS had sex with Mary but rather that a created ovum was implanted in Mary,
so both Mary and Joseph are properly in the creche as surrogate parents of Jesus, not biological parents of God.