Imputed Righteousness???

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Aussie52

Active member
Aug 31, 2022
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#1
I hear and read many times about the Christian having the imputed righteousness of Christ.
Funny thing is, NOWHERE in Scripture does it say we are credited with the Righteousness of Christ
Selah
 
Nov 14, 2024
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#2
Rom 4:1
What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?
Rom 4:2
For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.
Rom 4:3
For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
Rom 4:4
Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.
Rom 4:5
But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
Rom 4:6
Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
Rom 4:7
Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
Rom 4:8
Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
Rom 4:9
Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also? for we say that faith was reckoned to Abraham for righteousness.
Rom 4:10
How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision? Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision.
Rom 4:11
And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:
Rom 4:12
And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised.
Rom 4:13
For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith.
Rom 4:14
For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect:
Rom 4:15
Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.
Rom 4:16
Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all,
Rom 4:17
(As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.
Rom 4:18
Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be.
Rom 4:19
And being not weak in faith, he considered not his own body now dead, when he was about an hundred years old, neither yet the deadness of Sara's womb:
Rom 4:20
He staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God;
Rom 4:21
And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.
Rom 4:22
And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.
Rom 4:23
Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him;
Rom 4:24
But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;
Rom 4:25
Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.
 
Nov 12, 2021
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#3
I hear and read many times about the Christian having the imputed righteousness of Christ.
Funny thing is, NOWHERE in Scripture does it say we are credited with the Righteousness of Christ
Selah
Strong's Lexicon
ellogeó: To charge to one's account, to impute


Corresponding Greek / Hebrew Entries:
The concept of imputation in the Old Testament is often related to the Hebrew word חָשַׁב (chashab), which means to think, account, or reckon.
This is seen in passages like Genesis 15:6, where Abraham's faith is "credited" to him as right


Usage: The verb "ellogeó" is used in the context of accounting or reckoning, where something is credited or imputed to someone's account.
In the New Testament, it often refers to the imputation of sin or righteousness, highlighting the theological concept of how God accounts righteousness or sin to individuals.
 

Blain

The Word Weaver
Aug 28, 2012
19,667
2,789
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#4
  • Romans 3:22
    "This righteousness is given through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe".

  • 2 Corinthians 5:21
    "For our sake [God] made [Jesus] to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God".

  • 1 Corinthians 1:30
    "Christ “has become for us wisdom from God—that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption”.
Here are some other things to note about the righteousness of Christ:

  • Imputation: The process of giving Christ's righteousness to sinners.
  • Positional righteousness: Believers are considered righteous in the eyes of God, even though they may still sin.
  • Sanctification: The process through which believers learn to do what is right.



  • Why does Christ's righteousness need to be imputed to us?
    Oct 21, 2024 — Paul puts it this way: “For our sake [God] made [Jesus] to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the ...
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    Got Questions


  • Romans 3:22 And this righteousness from God comes through faith ...
    Romans 3:22 And this righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe.




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Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
14,767
5,951
113
#5
I hear and read many times about the Christian having the imputed righteousness of Christ.
Funny thing is, NOWHERE in Scripture does it say we are credited with the Righteousness of Christ
Selah
It’s interesting James tells us that this part was prophetic

“For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭4:3‬ ‭KJV‬‬

When Abraham believed the promise of a seed God called him righteous and a friend. But later this prophetic scripture was fulfilled when Abraham was tested and obeyed God offering Isaac. The fulfillment part happened when Abraham acted in faith

“Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?

Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?

And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.”
‭‭James‬ ‭2:21-23‬ ‭KJV‬‬

First Abraham believed the lord and later his professed faith was out to the test and the word of righteousness was fulfilled in Abrahams action.

its always thre same with faith first you hear from God and believe him and he credits us with having met the righteous requirement and later our faith is tested

Abraham’s belief of the promise first from God is what led to his actions later before God. God has spoken blessing through Isaac and promised all nations would be blessed through him

So when God later called for his sacrifice Abraham had reckoned that if he killed Isaac at Gods command , God would raise up Isaac back to life because he had already promised him a blessing through Isaac

By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son, of whom it was said, That in Isaac shall thy seed be called: accounting that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure.”
‭‭Hebrews‬ ‭11:17-19‬ ‭KJV‬‬


Abraham trusted what God told him . aBraham was a man of faith when God spoke to him he took it as Gods word and believed in him enough to act when the rubber met the road
 
Nov 1, 2024
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#6
Imputation (λογίζομαι ) of righteousness is a book entry, ie written in the book of life. Then we are given the spirit of the righteous one that we too might become righteous as he is

G3049 λογίζομαι logizomai (lo-ǰiy'-zo-mai) v.
to take an inventory,
 
Apr 7, 2024
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#7
I hear and read many times about the Christian having the imputed righteousness of Christ.
Funny thing is, NOWHERE in Scripture does it say we are credited with the Righteousness of Christ
Selah
You are correct. The following passage teaches us that God counts our faith as righteousness, but it does not imply we are credited with the righteousness of Christ...

Abraham Justified by Faith
4 What then shall we say that Abraham our father has found according to the flesh? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.” 4 Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as grace but as debt.​
David Celebrates the Same Truth
5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, 6 just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works:​
7 “Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven,​
And whose sins are covered;​
8 Blessed is the man to whom the LORD shall not impute sin.”​
The New King James Version (Ro 4:1–8). (1982). Thomas Nelson.​
Note: The bold+underline is where the underlying original language uses the word, "λογίζομαι", which is translated here "counted", "accounted", "impute" and "imputes".​

2 Corinthians 5:21 says, "For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." It speaks of "becomming" the righteousness of God in Him. It says nothing about being credited with His righteousness.
 

Blain

The Word Weaver
Aug 28, 2012
19,667
2,789
113
#8
You are correct. The following passage teaches us that God counts our faith as righteousness, but it does not imply we are credited with the righteousness of Christ...

Abraham Justified by Faith
4 What then shall we say that Abraham our father has found according to the flesh? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.” 4 Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as grace but as debt.​
David Celebrates the Same Truth
5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, 6 just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works:​
7 “Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven,​
And whose sins are covered;​
8 Blessed is the man to whom the LORD shall not impute sin.”​
The New King James Version (Ro 4:1–8). (1982). Thomas Nelson.​
Note: The bold+underline is where the underlying original language uses the word, "λογίζομαι", which is translated here "counted", "accounted", "impute" and "imputes".​

2 Corinthians 5:21 says, "For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." It speaks of "becomming" the righteousness of God in Him. It says nothing about being credited with His righteousness.
2 Corinthians 5:21
"For our sake [God] made [Jesus] to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
14,767
5,951
113
#9
You are correct. The following passage teaches us that God counts our faith as righteousness, but it does not imply we are credited with the righteousness of Christ...

Abraham Justified by Faith
4 What then shall we say that Abraham our father has found according to the flesh? 2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.” 4 Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as grace but as debt.​
David Celebrates the Same Truth
5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness, 6 just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works:​
7 “Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven,​
And whose sins are covered;​
8 Blessed is the man to whom the LORD shall not impute sin.”​
The New King James Version (Ro 4:1–8). (1982). Thomas Nelson.​
Note: The bold+underline is where the underlying original language uses the word, "λογίζομαι", which is translated here "counted", "accounted", "impute" and "imputes".​

2 Corinthians 5:21 says, "For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." It speaks of "becomming" the righteousness of God in Him. It says nothing about being credited with His righteousness.
There is the righteousness of the law . Then there is the righteousness of faith . One requires a person to listen to what god is saying and believe him and act accordingly like Abraham did .

at he other sets a list of regulations and rules and ordinances and rituals before a group and then sets punishments and standards and blessings and curses based upon each individual action . Ultimately it is the absence of a relationship wheras faith requires a constant relationship like Abraham we’re called to walk with God to sojourn with him continually in good times and bad

One form of righteousness became worthless but the other form has always been sufficient
 
Apr 7, 2024
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#11
There is the righteousness of the law . Then there is the righteousness of faith . One requires a person to listen to what god is saying and believe him and act accordingly like Abraham did .

at he other sets a list of regulations and rules and ordinances and rituals before a group and then sets punishments and standards and blessings and curses based upon each individual action . Ultimately it is the absence of a relationship wheras faith requires a constant relationship like Abraham we’re called to walk with God to sojourn with him continually in good times and bad

One form of righteousness became worthless but the other form has always been sufficient
How does the person of Romans 4:5 ("But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness") fit into either of the two paradigms you are describing?
 

ResidentAlien

Well-known member
Apr 21, 2021
8,468
3,705
113
#12
I hear and read many times about the Christian having the imputed righteousness of Christ.
Funny thing is, NOWHERE in Scripture does it say we are credited with the Righteousness of Christ
Selah
This is a tricky one. I've heard this preached a lot; usually they call it the "great exchange." But it doesn't sound right to me. The logical outcome of this teaching is the teaching that spiritually we are the righteousness of Christ but the flesh still sins. The whole thing sounds like Gnosticism to me.
 
Nov 1, 2024
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#13
This is a tricky one. I've heard this preached a lot; usually they call it the "great exchange." But it doesn't sound right to me. The logical outcome of this teaching is the teaching that spiritually we are the righteousness of Christ but the flesh still sins. The whole thing sounds like Gnosticism to me.
The great exchange is the blood covenant exchange of our sins being imputed to Christ (he did not become sin) and his righteousness being imputed to us (we did not become righteousness).

And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement. Romans 5:11
Atonement (bad translation)
G2643 καταλλαγή katallage (ka-tal-la-ǰee') n.
1. an exchange.
2. (figuratively) an adjustment, reconciliation.
3. (specially) restoration to the divine favor.
[from G2644]

G2644 καταλλάσσω katallasso (ka-tal-las'-sō) v.
1. to change mutually.
2. (figuratively) to reconcile.
 
Nov 14, 2024
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#14
This is a tricky one. I've heard this preached a lot; usually they call it the "great exchange." But it doesn't sound right to me. The logical outcome of this teaching is the teaching that spiritually we are the righteousness of Christ but the flesh still sins. The whole thing sounds like Gnosticism to me.
That may be "logical" according to Gnosticism, but it is not what the Bible teaches. The Bible teaches that those who have truly had Christ's righteousness imputed unto them will live righteously.

1Jo 2:29
If ye know that he is righteous, ye know that every one that doeth righteousness is born of him.

1Jo 3:7
Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.
1Jo 3:8
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
1Jo 3:9
Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
1Jo 3:10
In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.

Sad to say, in our mostly apostate churches, for one to even suggest that Christians ought to be living righteously is for them to be labeled as a heretic who must be shunned at all costs. Yep, to warn people not to be deceived by that which we just read ironically leads to one being labeled as a "deceiver."
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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#15
The imputation of Christ's righteousness is the righteousness that exceeds the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees. Without it, one will perish.
 

Pilgrimshope

Well-known member
Sep 2, 2020
14,767
5,951
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#16
How does the person of Romans 4:5 ("But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness") fit into either of the two paradigms you are describing?
You mean the scriptires I was quoting from that explain those type of single verses removed from context ? I’m not saying this James the lords brother did

“Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone. Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works. Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble. But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead? Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect? And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God. Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only. For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.”
‭‭James‬ ‭2:17-24, 26‬ ‭

Im not the one who is rejecting what he’s saying based on a sentance in a different epistle . I agree with James above there and also what Paul’s saying it’s just A bigger better worded view of it

paup wasn’t against doing good works or preaching to the chrich that they should be careful to maintain good works after they had believed

“This is a faithful saying, and these things I will that thou affirm constantly, that they which have believed in God might be careful to maintain good works. These things are good and profitable unto men.”
‭‭Titus‬ ‭3:8‬ ‭KJV‬‬

I think it’s more on you to reconcile things without erasing the greater parts I have no problem with what Paul writes in any epistle or what James wrote they work together
 

Cameron143

Well-known member
Mar 1, 2022
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#17
The impartation of Christ's righteousness is the substance of sanctification, and happens over the lifetime of the believer.
 
Nov 1, 2024
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#18
2 Corinthians 5:21
"For our sake [God] made [Jesus] to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God
Jesus was made a sin offering, not sin. In both the Greek and Hebrew there is no unique word for sin offering, so the word sin is used for both sin offerings (with a prepositional modifier) and acts of sin.

For he made the one who knew no sin (αμαρτίαν) to be sin (αμαρτίαν) for us, that we might become the righteousness of GOD in Him. 2 Corinthians 5:21
 

Blain

The Word Weaver
Aug 28, 2012
19,667
2,789
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#19
Jesus was made a sin offering, not sin. In both the Greek and Hebrew there is no unique word for sin offering, so the word sin is used for both sin offerings (with a prepositional modifier) and acts of sin.

For he made the one who knew no sin (αμαρτίαν) to be sin (αμαρτίαν) for us, that we might become the righteousness of GOD in Him. 2 Corinthians 5:21
what makes sin and sin offering change the outcome either way he became a substitute in our place
 
Nov 1, 2024
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#20
2 Corinthians 5:21 says, "For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." It speaks of "becomming" the righteousness of God in Him. It says nothing about being credited with His righteousness.
The word becoming is in the subjunctive case, which means conditional, ie might become the righteousness of Christ. We didn't become the righteousness of Christ