Did Jesus Die on The Cross for The Just/Elect/Saved Whose Names Are Written in The Book of Life OR

Or one could say, "If faith is not a good work, then unbelief is not an evil work. Sins are evil works performed out of unbelief. Good works are works done out of faith."

I say, "Every part of a translation that accurately conveys what God understood the original text to be saying, is the word of God. Anything in a translation that does not accurately convey what God had in mind when He guided the original scribe, is not the word of God."

Jesus' sacrifice satisfied the Father and Holy Spirit, who have in response handed over all judgment to the Son. Jesus will judge however He sees fit. It will not be the Father or the Holy Spirit judging on the last day.

God is comprised of three Persons: Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Because of Jesus' sacrifice, God has handed over judgment to the Son. The Father judges no one any more. So, the sacrifice was efficacious in gaining the Father's forgiveness. However, Jesus, as the Son of Man, is authorised to and will judge on the last day as He sees fit.

If that were true, every translation would agree with each other. In every language, words have different meanings than that of another language. 66 holy men as moved by the Holy Spirit gave us the holy scriptures. Translators are not necessarily holy men and are not inspired by the Spirit. Thus the command from the Lord for us to "Study to show ourselves approved, rightly dividing the word of truth."
In my opinion...

PaulThomson said:
I say, "Every part of a translation that accurately conveys what God understood the original text to be saying, is the word of God. Anything in a translation that does not accurately convey what God had in mind when He guided the original scribe, is not the word of God."

No, that does not follow from what I said.

One Psalm says, "Out of the mouth of babes you have ordained praise." Jesus reanslates that as "Out of the mouth of babes you have ordained strength." God had both "in mind" when the psalm was inspired: that the praise of infants would be used to strengthen Messiah's resolve. Therefore both the psalm and Jesus paraphrase of the psalm are the word of God. We do need to study the original language text to sift out poor from good translations of verses.

With the translator in mind, 1 Cor 8:2, "And if any man think that he knoweth any thing, he knoweth nothing yet as he ought to know."

Jesus paid for everyone's sins on the Cross.
What did that accomplish for mankind?

In effect, all men are now saved from their condemnation which was simply due to being born with sin.

That reality, then frees men up to believe in Jesus Christ.
For if our sins were not paid for?
We would all have had to be forsaken without Jesus taking that penalty out of the way.
Jesus was forsaken in our stead.

If Not?
No one could even approach God to believe onto salvation.

With the sin of mankind issue taken out of the way?
The real reason for God saving us is opened up.
Which is?
What think ye of Christ?

Our salvation becomes just like what the angels were confronted with.
They had to choose between the Lord, or Satan.

We now need to choose either for the Lord, or the world system of Satan.

Only for those who will not stop desiring to keep on maturing in Christ, will eventually discover the point you are wishing to make. About, how translations into English that are mainstream, have limits that only an excellent pastor who exegetes Scripture can reveal....

James 3:1 warned us that only a few who teach will actually be approved by God. But, what do we find today?

Paul told Timothy that the vast majority of those who are teaching would be catering to the desires of men's thinking,
Like today, not sticking to God's Word taught with accuracy = sound doctrine.

You are not differentiating between what constitutes 'sin." And, what constitutes 'evil.'

Adam had no sin nature.
But, he fell because he was seduced by what was 'evil,' not sin.
Adam went along with evil thinking, and then fell, then acquiring a sin nature.

Jesus died for sins.
Jesus did not die for evil.

Right. You say He died for all sins. Unbelief is a sin. So, according to you, it is paid for.
Since we know God accepted Jesus sacrifice as a propitiation for sin, that would mean there are people in hell whose sins have been paid for, and God, after accepting the payment, still requires payment for some?

Unbelief in regards to God is evil. Not sin.
The sin nature drives the power that gives evil its sense of conviction.

There is a fine line here.

You can lust in your heart for the Flying Nun.
But, if you were too broke to do anything about it?
Evil could give the money to take her out on a date.

Sin is doing something that breaks God's law.

On the other hand..
Evil rationalizes away what the Law says, and replaces it with its own concept of law to replace God's law.

Sin does not require rational thought. To sin you only have to follow through on impulse.

Where did you get your information from. pertaining to what you are saying here?

Acts 17:30

Well....one thing is for certain: Whoever doesn't believe in Jesus not only stands condemned already but when that person dies he will be judged for the all the sins he committed in this life. John 8, therefore, clearly refutes universal atonement, since God would never unjustly require double payment for the sins of unbelievers. It is ludicrous to believe simultaneously that Jesus actually bore the sins of the entire unbelieving world in his body and, therefore, paid for their sins and to also believe that when those unbelievers die they will also pay the price for their own sins.

They stood condemned already means they rejected the drawing of God.
God's drawing of each man precedes that person's salvation.

Psalms 8:2 "has ordained strength". Matt 21:16 "hath perfected praise"

You're missing the point. Jesus didn't die for evil. He died to pay for sins.

At any rate, grace and peace.

That's exactly what I said....