Bounds of their habitations?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Hakawaka

Active member
Jul 1, 2021
338
174
43
#1
And He hath made of one blood all nations of men to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation, - Acts 17:26

I want to discuss this with the fellow Christians here. What does the " bounds of their habitation " mean? I take it to mean God gave each group a certain place to live in. This raises some questions though, because boundaries are never static as anyone who knows even a bit of history would know. Boundaries change, nations come and go, even ethnic groups are wiped out, languages are wiped out.

So my question would be, lets take a few examples here: South Africa, Zimbabwe. These areas used to belong to the natives of the land, whatever those may be, then people came from Europe, settled there and even today many Boers a.k.a white South Africans are hellbent on staying in South Africa and consider it their God given land. But how could this be? Did God really give them this land or did they violate God's boundaries He had set?

What do you believe? If Russia were to conquer Ukraine now in totality, would you say God had "enlarged" the habitation of the russians? Or would you say the land grab was a violation? My honest answer is once again: I don't know. Because if you go back far enough, there were no "russians" or "ukrainians", every population and nation has always been in a constant state of change, conquering and being conquered, so to whom belongs what in this case is blurry. In the example of the Zimbabwe/ South Africa its clearcut, in the example of US/Canada its clear cut.
 

Mem

Senior Member
Sep 23, 2014
7,230
2,208
113
#2
I'm seeing that we are informed of the meaning by the wording used to lead into the use of the phrase. Paul addresses the inscription he found in the Areopagus:

TO AN UNKNOWN GOD.
Therefore what you worship as something unknown, I now proclaim to you.

24The God who made the world and everything in it is the Lord of heaven and earth and does not live in temples made by human hands. 25Nor is He served by human hands, as if He needed anything, because He Himself gives everyone life and breath and everything else. 26From one mand He made every nation of men, that they should inhabit the whole earth; and He determined their appointed times and the boundaries of their lands.

The Lord of heaven and earth, that is, The Lor of all that is known, who does not live in temples made by human hands, that is, no human can confine Him to any designated space.

He Himself gives everyone life and breath and everything else, that is, no human can determine the limits of God as it is He that determines ours. This is similar to the idea that you have about it.

However, that they should inhabit the whole earth (the limit of their habitation); and He determined their appointed times (the limit of the use of heaven as far as they are concerned (the sun, moon, stars, and other planets). I mean, what use has space travel actually been to us? Although the (human) hope is to inhabit it, we've only really managed to put satellites up there but only as far as the earth's gravity field are they really useful to us). And so, even though several translations say, "the boundaries of their lands," the Strong's Greek offers, "A dwelling, habitation, settlement. Residence," and this is "the boundaries of their habitation" which God had determined. Humans have yet to be successful in establishing a settlement in space but it's not from the lack of the endeavor. And neither is any Atlantis-type settlement going to happen anytime soon.
 

Adstar

Senior Member
Jul 24, 2016
7,600
3,624
113
#3
And He hath made of one blood all nations of men to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation, - Acts 17:26

I want to discuss this with the fellow Christians here. What does the " bounds of their habitation " mean? I take it to mean God gave each group a certain place to live in. This raises some questions though, because boundaries are never static as anyone who knows even a bit of history would know. Boundaries change, nations come and go, even ethnic groups are wiped out, languages are wiped out.

So my question would be, lets take a few examples here: South Africa, Zimbabwe. These areas used to belong to the natives of the land, whatever those may be, then people came from Europe, settled there and even today many Boers a.k.a white South Africans are hellbent on staying in South Africa and consider it their God given land. But how could this be? Did God really give them this land or did they violate God's boundaries He had set?

What do you believe? If Russia were to conquer Ukraine now in totality, would you say God had "enlarged" the habitation of the russians? Or would you say the land grab was a violation? My honest answer is once again: I don't know. Because if you go back far enough, there were no "russians" or "ukrainians", every population and nation has always been in a constant state of change, conquering and being conquered, so to whom belongs what in this case is blurry. In the example of the Zimbabwe/ South Africa its clearcut, in the example of US/Canada its clear cut.
The Bible does not say that the boundaries of their habitations would remain fixed through all history..

As for the ownership of Zimbabwe and South Africa your statement that it is clear cut is Not as clear cut as you assume.. There where internal African migrations and invasions of The Area where some African tribes dispossessed and even engaged in genocide of other African tribes living in the South African regions.. So to think that because they are black Africans then they are ""native"" to Zimbabwe and South Africa is wrong.. It would the same as assuming that Germans living in the Volga region of Russia where native because they where white..
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,954
13,615
113
#4
And He hath made of one blood all nations of men to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation, - Acts 17:26

I want to discuss this with the fellow Christians here. What does the " bounds of their habitation " mean? I take it to mean God gave each group a certain place to live in. This raises some questions though, because boundaries are never static as anyone who knows even a bit of history would know. Boundaries change, nations come and go, even ethnic groups are wiped out, languages are wiped out.

So my question would be, lets take a few examples here: South Africa, Zimbabwe. These areas used to belong to the natives of the land, whatever those may be, then people came from Europe, settled there and even today many Boers a.k.a white South Africans are hellbent on staying in South Africa and consider it their God given land. But how could this be? Did God really give them this land or did they violate God's boundaries He had set?

What do you believe? If Russia were to conquer Ukraine now in totality, would you say God had "enlarged" the habitation of the russians? Or would you say the land grab was a violation? My honest answer is once again: I don't know. Because if you go back far enough, there were no "russians" or "ukrainians", every population and nation has always been in a constant state of change, conquering and being conquered, so to whom belongs what in this case is blurry. In the example of the Zimbabwe/ South Africa its clearcut, in the example of US/Canada its clear cut.
i take the "them" to refer to "men" rather than "every nation" - not as though either is not in His hands.

but as to your question, how could it possibly be that men upset the times appointed by God? the passage has just told us God determined these things.

isn't it clear from the history of Israel that even though God gave a land to Abraham by promise, He also in chastisement for certain times withheld it from Abraham's descendents? and the same for other nations: He spoke by His prophets saying this nation He will raise up, and this one He will cause to fall, at the times He appointed for them.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,778
113
#5
I want to discuss this with the fellow Christians here. What does the " bounds of their habitation " mean?
It means the boundaries of where various nations were located. This probably refers to the various ethnic groups scattered across the earth and created for their environments. Their appearances, languages, and cultures plus their locations is in view.
So to think that because they are black Africans then they are ""native"" to Zimbabwe and South Africa is wrong..
No it is not wrong. Even among African nations, God created these distinctions, and the skin color of Africans is suited to their environment. Of course boundaries have changed due to wars and nations grabbing the territories of other nations, but this fundamental truth has not changed.

What Paul was emphasizing were two things:
(1) regardless of these ethnic differences, all human beings have descended from Adam and therefor they are essentially "of one blood". And while blood "types" exist, they are found in all ethnic groups.

(2) Secondly, and more importantly, all men -- regardless of these differences -- "should seek the Lord, if haply they might feel after him, and find him, though he be not far from every one of us". But most nations did not worship the one true God, even though creation revealed that there was only one Creator and one God. So they turned to idols:

ROMANS 1: GOD REVEALED HIMSELF TO ALL MANKIND THROUGH HIS CREATION
19Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
20For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
21Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
22Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,
23And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things.
24Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:
25Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.

So now God has given the Church the responsibility of taking the Gospel to every creature, since God will have ALL MEN TO BE SAVED and come unto the knowledge of the truth (1 Tim 2:3,4). Which effectively cancels any teaching that God elects some for salvation and others for damnation.
 

JohnRH

Junior Member
Mar 5, 2018
683
330
63
#6
And He hath made of one blood all nations of men to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation, - Acts 17:26

I want to discuss this with the fellow Christians here. What does the " bounds of their habitation " mean? I take it to mean God gave each group a certain place to live in. This raises some questions though, because boundaries are never static as anyone who knows even a bit of history would know. Boundaries change, nations come and go, even ethnic groups are wiped out, languages are wiped out.

So my question would be, lets take a few examples here: South Africa, Zimbabwe. These areas used to belong to the natives of the land, whatever those may be, then people came from Europe, settled there and even today many Boers a.k.a white South Africans are hellbent on staying in South Africa and consider it their God given land. But how could this be? Did God really give them this land or did they violate God's boundaries He had set?

What do you believe? If Russia were to conquer Ukraine now in totality, would you say God had "enlarged" the habitation of the russians? Or would you say the land grab was a violation? My honest answer is once again: I don't know. Because if you go back far enough, there were no "russians" or "ukrainians", every population and nation has always been in a constant state of change, conquering and being conquered, so to whom belongs what in this case is blurry. In the example of the Zimbabwe/ South Africa its clearcut, in the example of US/Canada its clear cut.
And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation; Acts 17:26 (KJV)

It might be helpful to consider "times" and "boundaries" together (as a combination). As you alluded to, the boundaries change over time. God controls these changes so that each man therein should seek and find the Lord (next verse).