Why didn’t Jonah just jump off the boat?

I made a better thread at https://christianchat.com/bible-discussion-forum/gods-promises.214536/
called God's promises that is not based on the false pre-conceived premise that God does not watch over His Word to perform it. (Jeremiah 1:12)

you posted the reference, so i posted the actual verse.
whose at fault if it doesn't surpport your position?

You failed to prove Proverbs 15:30 does not include physical bones.

Then I posted Proverbs 4:20-23 which clearly proves the Lord is speaking about our body

So your mind is made up and you will never be bothered with healing from the Lord.

You are on your own pal.

why don't you want to have a discussion about the specific off topic issue you brought up? i made a thread specifically for it, but you aren't engaging with it.

off topic. there's a thread specifically for this. post in it.

I've already proven in this thread that you reject the clear reading of scripture on this topic.

I have my own thread for this so no need for you to post in it since you reject God's promises on this topic

nope, you just asserted it by personal fiat.

can you not have a discussion without assaulting my character?
perhaps the Lord will heal you of this.

you could have just as easily replied to the thread i created specifically for you.

why didn't you?

you will die quickly

I have my own thread

This I find interesting. Some years back when I first heard that the New Testament was written without punctuation it got my mind going. So I dug in and it was in the 3rd century BC that the Greeks started punctuation believe first was the comma.

I theorize that the problem arose because as you conquered new peoples and pushed for assimilation by culture and language. There is gonna be some disconnect in the process. I have never had time to really research if that is the case or not. However, it was noticed that as Greek was being read aloud in forums and public gatherings. Some of the readers did not comprehend where to stop, place emphasis, and etc. So punctuation was born to let the reader know how and when to do so.

Also upon further reading of modern scholars. The majority found no problems with the punctuation. Mainly because Greek was still spoken as a first and primary language as late as I believe 400 AD. So they would have the knowledge and skillset. So I tend to at least at this time go with the majority that it is correct. Mainly because I have not found the time to really dig in further and research out all the history and data.

Which hoping at some point I get the time to because I have to admit that when I read every jot and title will be fulfilled. I take a broader reading for that to include punctuation as well. So interesting topic and since you believe there may be a problem with the punctuation of this verse would actually like to hear more on why you find that so or just your theory if that is what you have at present.

I believe the word as given was true. I believe any additions to the original texts are up for negotiation.

Another text where I disagree wqith the KJV punctuation is "I tell you today, you will be with me in Paradise." Rather than "I tell you, today you will be with me in paradise."

That one does seem to be the one I hear the most on the punctuation. I guess for me it has never bothered me nor the punctuation at all. As I always read Christ is speaking from the reality of where they are going and not where they are. As on the other side even though three days had passed on our side over there it was still today.

Another explanation for this is the rejection that paradise means heaven, which it clearly does not. And since Jesus did not ascend to heaven until after His resurrection three days later, this solves the problem of thinking He meant heaven "today" when He did not. Paradise was Abraham's bosom, the "side" of Sheol where the righteous went... Sheol being a general "holding place" for the dead, both righteous, and not.

If Jonah knew he was the cause of the storm, then why not just jump off the ship, instead of requiring the sailors to throw him over?

until the time the Father and Holy Spirit reached down into hades and ripped His soul out of satan's clutches and put it back into the body in the tomb..

.... and therefore a true prophet of God

It may be that Jesus was metaphorically sun-bathing in a deck chair in paradise drinking Iced tea with the penitent thief while he was waiting for His time to resurrect. However, it seems to me more likely from the messianic psalms like Ps.18, that He, as the world's sin bearing scapegoat, was being subjected to the demonic torments that a condemned sinner would be subject to, up until the time the Father and Holy Spirit reached down into hades and ripped His soul out of satan's clutches and put it back into the body in the tomb..

Anytime I have heard this preached it ends with Christ became the very first to be born again. Is that how you read and understand this doctrine of him becoming sin itself then paying the price in hell?

Jesus became a sin offering, He never became a sinner.

Jesus was the first born from the dead

Colossians 1:18
And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.

He was separated from God on the Cross in our behalf. We know this is true because Jesus said "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me" (Matthew 27:46) He was separated from God as a sin offering for our sin because the wages of sin is death which is separation from God (Romans 6:23)

Most people don't realize that the first man to get born again was Adam. Only, Adam got born again from life to death in that he was in union with God, he sinned, and became separated from God because of sin and died spiritually.

Jesus on the other hand never did any sin Himself, but he was made a sin offering for the sins of mankind and God forsook Him in our behalf - and then Jesus was raised from the dead and become the first man to be born again from death to life.

This why the Word of God says Jesus is the firstborn from the dead.

Mine was a question to him about a doctrine known as Christ becoming sin. Reason I ask him is because we at present when time allows are also debating if Christ was preached as deity as part of salvation. So having heard the teaching of Christ became sin, I am aware of also a teaching that Christ had no idea he was the savior until he had opened up and preached Isaiah 61 and said today this is fulfilled.

So just trying to ascertain how one teaching he has heard has influenced the next. So I can be better equipped to answer on matters in debate at present and prior ones still ongoing. Seeing if one influences another or is no connection at all and independent of each other.