Should the Name of the Lord Jehovah be in each of the Psalms?

The Literal Translation, of John 8:58, as is evident also from the text would be: "Before Abraham ever existed, I AM JEHOVAH".

Our Lord's Name JESUS/Yeshua means Jehovah Our Savior, or Yahweh Who Saves.

"Yah is Salvation"

Yah who? Or Yah hoo?

YHWH is translated as "the LORD" in the KJV which indicates that YHWH has been properly translated. This is consistent in the KJV.

Yah who? Or Yah hoo?

i understand that sentiment and don't disagree

Ayehivohu

has He been with us all this time and yet we still do not know Him??

No, it's Before Abraham, I AM

YYHVH isn't in the text. putting it there would be interpretive, not literal.

it should be understood by us if we study, and was immediately understood by the teachers of the Law when He said this, that by saying I AM He was declaring Himself equivalently Yah, in the flesh.

no need to add to the text imo
what's needed is to understand what we read

Good bless you. Hope you feel better soon.

I have the mind of Christ. What greater blessing of health can there be?

The tissue of Christ.

Ok. Perhaps Literal wasn't the right word there, and interpretive would be better.

But in discussions not just with Jehovah's witnesses, but also Jews, Muslims etc, it is better imo that the translation make clear exactly what is being claimed. "Before Abraham, I AM" is cryptic and unclear to most English readers.

Right from Exodus 3:14 where the Lord Jehovah says "I AM" hath sent me to you, He makes clear He wishes to be known by this Name, in part because that is the Name of the True God, as distinguished from every false god, in part because it describes who He is by Nature, the Supreme Being, and for other reasons. I do think "I AM JEHOVAH" would be a fair interpretive translation, and the context of the passage, and the reaction of the Pharisees shows that they understood that. God Bless.

And where it gets interesting is, some Exorcisms suggest, Demons cannot pronounce "Lord Jehovah" or "Jehovah is Lord".

If a person says, he's a devout Jew, or a devout Christian, he should prove it by saying "Jesus is Lord", "Jehovah is Lord" etc.

For e.g. Psalm 23 would read (quoting it from the NKJV, but with the Name of the Lord Jehovah, whom we praise when we say Hallelujah, inserted),

"The Lord Jehovah is my shepherd;
I shall not want.
2 He makes me to lie down in green pastures;
He leads me beside the still waters.
3 He restores my soul;
He leads me in the paths of righteousness
For His name’s sake.
4 Yea, though I walk through the valley of the shadow of death,
I will fear no evil;
For You are with me;
Your rod and Your staff, they comfort me.
5 You prepare a table before me in the presence of my enemies;
You anoint my head with oil;
My cup runs over.
6 Surely goodness and mercy shall follow me
All the days of my life;
And I will dwell in the house of the Lord Jehovah Forever."

Also, Psalm 110:1 probably originally had "Jehovah says to Jehovah", that's why it's quoted in the NT so often and the NT writers, including Christ Himself, make ample use of this Psalm. It was a Pharisaic tradition to say we should stop pronouncing the Name of God in the Bible.

Thoughts?

Books of the Bible were written certain ways to communicate from God to us. God was totally in control of that process

The Books of the Old Testament were written in Poetry form. Did not have Chapters or Verses. Guess we need to rewrite the entire KJV and any other Translation that has Chapters and Verses? Hmm...........