Has anyone found secret messages in the bible?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
2,070
335
83
I checked the link you posted. You pulled a three-year-old post from another thread, from long before you were a member here.

What I wrote then was written in that context, not this. I have not defended any particular manuscript in this thread.
Why don’t you just tell us what manuscripts you favor as being the best ones to use today?
Why so evasive?
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
2,070
335
83
Dino, if you are saying that the King James Bible is the product of textual criticism" that is incorrect.

As noted in Britannica, higher and lower (textual) criticism began in the 19th century: "Textual criticism, properly speaking, is an ancillary academic discipline designed to lay the foundations for the so-called higher criticism, which deals with questions of authenticity and attribution, of interpretation, and of literary and historical evaluation. This distinction between the lower and the higher branches of criticism was first made explicitly by the German biblical scholar J.G. Eichhorn; the first use of the term “textual criticism” in English dates from the middle of the 19th century. In practice the operations of textual and “higher” criticism cannot be rigidly differentiated: at the very outset of his work a critic, faced with variant forms of a text, inevitably employs stylistic and other criteria belonging to the “higher” branch. "
I would be interested in learning more about this. If you have any good resources on this by some chance, let me know.
I have been reading the lengthy PDF titled, “For the Love of the Bible” from WayofLife.org. He goes deep in the history on the subject of early textual critics, etcetera.
 
Sep 28, 2023
948
177
43
So called "textual critics" end up being people who are taught by satan to claim certain parts of scripture are not true... usually the parts that prove reformed theology and calvinism is false doctrine laughing.gif
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,432
13,775
113
It’s odd that 2 Corinthians 2:17 is altered in Modern Bibles to hide the truth of this corruption.
You're attributing motive where you have provided no evidence for that motive. That wouldn't hold up in court, and it doesn't hold up in logical debate.

Odd that the Westcott and Hort / Nestle and Aland text is shorter than the Received Text (Textus Receptus).
Actually, considering that the TR contains so many "expansions of piety", it's not surprising.

As I said, I do acknowledge other groups of believers, but they are not as common. As I said, I am mentioning the two most popular positions. Do you see another that is just as equally popular that I missed?
The vast majority of Christians I've encountered don't care about this issue at all.

Your reply is illogical, and evasive. To my knowledge, this is the view of Modern Textual Criticism. They believe only the originals are inspired and therefore they must reconstruct the text with new manuscript discoveries, new translations, etcetera. If you disagree, then please explain how you think things are different.
I don't disagree, but I also don't see any problems with that approach. It's an iterative process, and as such there will be changes in the results. I'm comfortable with that because I know that the changes are minor... despite the penchant of the KJV-only crowd to make mountains out of molehills.
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
2,070
335
83
Philippians 2:7
he gave up his divine privileges; he took the humble position of a slave and was born as a human being. When he appeared in human form,
Okay. You are quoting the very Modern Bible I showed you before that was false. I already pointed out to you before that Philippians 2:7 in the New Living Translation Paraphrase is a false teaching. The Modern Bibles falsely teach Jesus did not have power when this contradicts Scripture in numerous places. The NLT is the result of Modern Textual Criticism.

The King James Bible correctly says,

Philippians 2:7 (KJV)
”But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:”

How do we know it is false?

Here is my list of Bible verses that proves that…


Jesus had power as God:
(During His Earthly Ministry):

1. Jesus said He has power to raise the dead to life just as the Father had power to raise the dead (John 5:21).

2. Hebrews 1:3 talks about how Christ held all things together by the word of His power when He purged us of our sins.

3. Jesus said, He would raise up this Temple (His body) three days later (John 2:19).

4. Jesus had the power to forgive sins and give eternal life (Mark 2:7) (Luke 7:44-50) (John 14:6).

5 Jesus had power to take away the sins of the entire world (John 1:29).

6. Jesus Christ said wherever two or three are gathered in my name, there I am among them (Matthew 18:20). This was said to the people he was around and not to just us today.

7. Jesus can make His home or abode inside of us if we keep His commandments (John 14:15). This is a part of His divine power and or abilities as God. Humans born to two parents cannot make their homes inside other people.

8. “This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him.” (John 2:11). This was a direct statement. Meaning, Christ’s miracle at the wedding of Cana manifested His glory. This was his first miracle done by Jesus, and it was a part of His showing forth His deity as God. The apostle John did not say that the Lord Jesus manifested the Holy Spirit’s glory, but His own glory.

9. ”And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.” (John 14:13-14). This was said by Jesus before the cross, and answering prayers is definitely a divine act of God. Please pay close attention to what Jesus said. He said, “I will do it“ in reference to answering prayer. So if a person prays for a healing in His name, he will do it. He will be the One who will heal them and do it.

10. John 5:17 (NKJV) “But Jesus answered them, “My Father has been working until now, and I have been working.” If you were to read a little before verse 17, we learn that this is in context to the Jews being upset because of Christ healing a man on the Sabbath. So Jesus is taking ownership of this healing because He said He has been working (Just as the Father). John 5:19 says, “Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.”

You said:
Hebrews 4:15
For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who was tempted in every way that we are, yet was without sin.
You said:
What you are failing to understand is... even though Jesus was the Son of God... in His early live and ministry He did not living as being All powerful and instead gave up His divine privileges and walked as a man that was filled wiht the Holy Ghost empowered by the Spirit for ministry (he did no miracles before the Holy Ghost came upon Him to empower Him for ministry)

In His everyday life as well as in His ministry He did actually have faith and walked in faith as well as all the other 8 fruit of the Spirit. If He did not, then that would have been sinful. Jesus was tempted as we are in all the same things we are tempted and tried with... and by faith He overcame the world without giving in to sin.
Incorrrect. Hebrews 2, and Hebrews 4 are both talking about EXTERNAL temptation only and not internal temptation.
A guy could run up to you and try to sell you a hot stolen cellphone, but you suspect it is stolen and you tell him, “No thanks.” Later, you go home and tell your family that you were tempted by some guy trying to sell you a cellphone. Yet, you had no interest in the part of the temptation put forth to you.

Anyway, there is nothing on the inside of Jesus that was bad that could have ever made Him even sin. If there was, He could not be our spotless Lamb. Jesus said He is the light of the world. He could not be the Light if He had darkness within Him, like the capacity to sin.

You said:
1 John 5:4
For whatsoever is born of God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that overcometh the world, even our faith.


Walking in faith, submitting Himself unto the Father resisting the devil is HOW Jesus overcame the things of this world which is how was are supposed to be walking as well.
No. If you noticed. The devil never came back to tempt Jesus. Why? Because by Jesus passing his tests, it proved He was the Son of God. The devil knowing that the Son of God cannot be tempted by sin because He is the Creator never bothered to come back to tempt Him. Jesus is GOD.

You said:
So, if you want to believe in error that Jesus lived in unbelief and that He used special strength and abilities we don't have access to thru God's Word and the Holy Ghost... that would be falling to more deception from 'ol slewfoot.
This is merely your false assumption. You assume I believe Jesus was in unbelief. Okay. Let me ask you. Can God the Father have faith? Yes, or no? If not, does that mean He has unbelief? No! Of course not. That would be silly. So your assumption is illogical. But you will be hard pressed to find anywhere in the Scriptures where Jesus was said to have faith or a belief of any kind. Try as you may, you will just not find it. Jesus obeyed the Father but He did not have faith because He is God just as God the Father is God.

You said:
If one claims Jesus did not have faith... they must also claim he did not have the fruit of the spirit which are: love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, meekness, temperance: against such there is no law. (Galatians 5:22,23)
There are those false assumptions. Again! Colossians 2:9! Please read this verse and believe it, my friend!
It says that the fulness of the Godhead (meaning the Trinity) was in the man Christ Jesus. Meaning, the full power of the Word who was made flesh was in the man known as Jesus. Jesus also abided in the Father and the Spirit too.

You said:
Jesus walk in ALL of these attributes... and since He has all theser attibutes, we have access to these as well IF we are walking in the leading and empowerment of the Holy Ghost like Jesus did in His earthly life.!
Jesus actually could live inside people even during His earthly ministry.
Jesus said He is life (John 14:6). How is that possible if He was just a man who was stripped of His power?
You want me to believe Jesus did the same thing Superman did back in Superman 2 when he gave up his powers to be with Lois Lane.
If such were the case, Superman can no longer claim the title Superman because he has no superpowers anymore. God who does not have power is not God. Think.
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
2,070
335
83
Philippians 2:7
he gave up his divine privileges; he took the humble position of a slave and was born as a human being. When he appeared in human form,


Hebrews 4:15
For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who was tempted in every way that we are, yet was without sin.


What you are failing to understand is... even though Jesus was the Son of God... in His early live and ministry He did not living as being All powerful and instead gave up His divine privileges and walked as a man that was filled wiht the Holy Ghost empowered by the Spirit for ministry (he did no miracles before the Holy Ghost came upon Him to empower Him for ministry)

In His everyday life as well as in His ministry He did actually have faith and walked in faith as well as all the other 8 fruit of the Spirit. If He did not, then that would have been sinful. Jesus was tempted as we are in all the same things we are tempted and tried with... and by faith He overcame the world without giving in to sin.

1 John 5:4
For whatsoever is born of God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that overcometh the world, even our faith.


Walking in faith, submitting Himself unto the Father resisting the devil is HOW Jesus overcame the things of this world which is how was are supposed to be walking as well.

So, if you want to believe in error that Jesus lived in unbelief and that He used special strength and abilities we don't have access to thru God's Word and the Holy Ghost... that would be falling to more deception from 'ol slewfoot.

If one claims Jesus did not have faith... they must also claim he did not have the fruit of the spirit which are: love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, meekness, temperance: against such there is no law. (Galatians 5:22,23)

Jesus walk in ALL of these attributes... and since He has all theser attibutes, we have access to these as well IF we are walking in the leading and empowerment of the Holy Ghost like Jesus did in His earthly life.!
To claim Jesus did not have power as God during His earthly ministry is an attack upon His deity. Please carefully and slowly read the verses I provided in prayer on those verses that clearly demonstrate how Jesus had power.
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
2,070
335
83
You're attributing motive where you have provided no evidence for that motive. That wouldn't hold up in court, and it doesn't hold up in logical debate.
Paul said there were MANY who corrupted the Word of God during his time.

156 AD. Irenaeus (says of the gnostics): “Wherefore they and their followers have betaken themselves to mutilating the Scriptures which they themselves have shortened.”

So there is a good chance that the shorter manuscripts you favor are in fact the corrupted ones. I believe this is the case because of the other evidences involved, as well. Like I said, heretics were involved in the formation of the Modern Bible movement like Catholics, Unitarians, liberals, etcetera. Then we have actual corrupted doctrines that we can see in Modern Bibles that favor Catholicism and Unitarianism, etcetera. Then there is God’s Word which is the biggest witness of all. The Bible speaks about how God would preserve His words and how they are perfect. The Bible loosely warns of Textual Criticism, as well. It’s the Science falsely so called.

You said:
I don't disagree, but I also don't see any problems with that approach. It's an iterative process, and as such there will be changes in the results. I'm comfortable with that because I know that the changes are minor... despite the penchant of the KJV-only crowd to make mountains out of molehills.
In some cases I will admit that my fellow KJB Proponents will make some weak arguments like using Luke 4:4. But that does not mean there are not better points that defend the truth of God’s Word (the KJB). Direct references of the Trinity are removed, fornication is either removed altogether or watered down. The command on how you are not to fellowship with prosperity believers in 1 Timothy 6 is removed, etcetera. Involving the change of doctrine: There are 32 really strong points that is an alteration for the worse and not for the better between the Modern Bibles and the KJB.
 
Sep 28, 2023
948
177
43
Okay. You are quoting the very Modern Bible I showed you before that was false

That's false... Jesus humbled Himself under death for our salvation

You obviously misunderstand the Gospel. Claiming verses you don't agree with were not authored by the Lord is an old trick of the devil who is continually claiming what God says is not true or He meant something different as he did with Adam and Eve. It's what the devil does!

Hang in their bud... maybe someday you'll get it! laughing.gif




To claim Jesus did not have power as God during His earthly ministry is an attack upon His deity.

I never said He did not have access to the power of God during His earthly ministry... He ministered as a man filled with the Holy Ghost during His ministry. (But, He went to the Cross as THE Lamb of God.)

Just like WE are supposed to be doing.

John 14:10
Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.


John 5:19
Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.


Jesus specifically said He was not doing things in His Own power... the Father was working thru Him.

This is because of Philippians 2:7 which is actually true and goes along with what Jesus said.


Anyway, there is nothing on the inside of Jesus that was bad that could have ever made Him even sin.

But, He COULD have sinned... which is why the Holy Spirit led Him to the wilderness to be tempted by the devil because ... Jesus, being the second Adam (later called the last Adam) had to succeed and be victorious where Adam had failed.

Adam could have resisted satan's temptation in the garden but he instead choose to be disobedient... part of Jesus being the representative for mankind in God's plan of salvation required Jesus to be in the same position... but he had to choose to NOT sin which He obviously did because He never sinned.

He overcame sin thru the Father working thru Him in the Person of the Holy Ghost.

We too should be over comers in this life thru the Father working thru US in the Person of the Holy Ghost.

Jesus is the model we are called to follow

Romans 8:29
For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.

2 Corinthians 5:17
Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.

1 John 4:17
Herein is our love made perfect, that we may have boldness in the day of judgment: because as he is, so are we in this world.

Ephesians 5:1
Be ye therefore followers of God, as dear children *In context, read Ephesians 4:24 thru Ephesians 5:14
 
Sep 28, 2023
948
177
43
Philippians 2:7 (KJV)
”But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:”

Correct... "and was made in the likeness of men"

He lived as a man filled with the Holy Spirit... He walked in what He has made available to us to walk in... and that is the anointing of the Holy Ghost within and upon.

What part of "in the likeness of men" did you have difficulties understanding? clueless-scratching.gif
 
N

Niki7

Guest
And yet Romans 13:1 tells us to obey government authority because all authority is sanctioned by God. Do you follow the law? If not, then you are rebelling against God.
Does it specify which gov or does this apply to all? how about Hamas...they were the gov in Gaza up to a couple of mths ago

should we obey Hamas?
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,774
113
I have been reading the lengthy PDF titled, “For the Love of the Bible” from WayofLife.org. He goes deep in the history on the subject of early textual critics, etcetera.
Brother Cloud has quite a few good articles on the Bible version issue, including a solid defense of 1 John 5:7. Check out all his articles and papers at WayofLife.org.

As to the deficiencies of the Septuagint, Alfred Edersheim was a 19th century pastor and scholar who was well versed in Hebrew and Greek. He wrote a critique of the Septuagint in his book The Life and Times of Jesus the Messiah. This book itself is worth acquiring and reading since he has some excellent insights. You can either download it or get it from Amazon. The only problem with Edersheim is that he "bought" the theory of Westcott and Hort (which to me was quite surprising and very disappointing). So he often goes to the critical text to "fix" what is in the Received Text. That spoils his book quite a bit.

Actually a lot of good Christian conservative scholars were also taken by the nonsense of Westcott and Hort. But that was not the case with Dean John William Burgon (also 19th century). You should invest in all his books and many are also available at Amazon. The Revision Revised gives a lengthy defense of 1 Timothy 3:16 (GOD was manifest in the flesh) but also shows exactly how the critical text of W&H is corrupt. And his book The Last Twelve Verses of Mark defends those 12 verses with actual manuscript evidence.

You can also get all of Dean Burgon's books from The Bible for Today (https://www.biblefortoday.org/). They include the above as well as The Traditional Text of the Holy Gospels, Causes of Corruption of the Traditional Text, Early Church Fathers' Witness to Antiquity of Traditional Text.

The Bible for Today has a huge number of books and articles regarding the Bible version issue, corrupt modern bibles, etc.
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
2,070
335
83
That's false... Jesus humbled Himself under death for our salvation
Yes, Jesus humbled Himself by being a servant and obeying the Father’s commands instead of seeking to do His own will.
Jesus perfectly obeyed the Law and died in our place upon the cross. Jesus is the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world. Besides those who will worship the beast in the future (Revelation 13:8) (Revelation 17:8), everyone at one point had their names in the book of life because of what Christ has done (with His death, burial, and resurrection). Meaning, if a baby dies, they are saved by the sacrifice of Jesus Christ. But if one grows up and sins again, they need to access God’s grace through faith (Romans 5:2) in order for the atonement to be reapplied again to their life.

You said:
You obviously misunderstand the Gospel.
I don’t believe so.
The gospel is this…

1 Corinthians 15:1-4

1 "Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;​
2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.​
3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;​
4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:”​

In other words, the gospel is believing that Christ died for our sins, He was buried, and risen the third day for our salvation.
This belief in the gospel is integral to our Initial Salvation, and this belief in the gospel continues throughout our whole life as a Christian. Without this gospel, nobody could be saved. Granted, there are other requirements as a part of God’s plan of salvation. The gospel also CALLS us according to 2 Thessalonians 2:14. This call of the gospel (not that it is the gospel) is…. God has chosen you to Sanctification of the Spirit and a belief of the truth (See: 2 Thessalonians 2:13). Sanctification is living a holy life by the Spirit.

You said:
Claiming verses you don't agree with were not authored by the Lord is an old trick of the devil who is continually claiming what God says is not true or He meant something different as he did with Adam and Eve. It's what the devil does!
I believe Philippians 2:7 in the King James Bible just fine because it is saying that Jesus did not make Himself of any reputation and took on the form of a servant and made in the likeness of men. Philippians 2:7 in the New Living Translation Paraphrase says something ENTIRELY different. The NLT talks about how He gave up His divine privileges or powers. So the NLT and the KJV are not saying the same thing!!!!! This is the point I was making before on how Modern Bibles teach false doctrines. You cannot say all Modern Bibles teach the same thing. 1 John 5:7 is MISSING in Modern Bibles!!!!! So you cannot claim they are all saying the same thing. They are not.

So what does Philippians 2:7 mean in the King James Bible?

It means Jesus was not seeking to uplift Himself as the Son of God while on Earth, but He had a mission to accomplish. It means that Jesus obeyed God the Father’s commands. Jesus spoke by commandment of the Father. Jesus obeyed the Father by going to the cross. Jesus served in love of His disciples by washing their feet. He served and loved others who were suffering. He preached the gospel and helped the poor. Jesus loved and preached against sin in how it can destroy our souls, and He told men to repent. Jesus being made in the LIKENESS of men should be read in context of Hebrews 7:26 that says, this.

Hebrews 7:26
”For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;”

Jesus is said to be separate from sinners and that He is holy, UNDEFILED, and made HIGHER than the heavens. Jesus was harmless. Again, how can Jesus potentially sin? If that was the case, there would be darkness within Jesus. Thats not possible because He is HOLY, SEPARATE FROM SINNERS. Jesus is the perfect and spotless Lamb. You cannot have any gospel of Jesus dying in our place if He was not our spotless Lamb. Lamb’s had to be spotless.

Jesus was born of a Virgin Mary. Why? Did you ever wonder why?
Because according to Romans 5, sin entered the world through one man (Adam).

Romans 5:12 says,
”Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:"

This verse above says that sin entered the world by one man.
But wait a minute. Did not Eve commit the first sin in this world back in Genesis 3?
She did, but sin did not enter this world but by one man which was Adam.
This is why the chapter talks about how the Messiah would come through the seed of the woman in Genesis 3.
Meaning, sin is passed down by the male seed. All have sinned due to Adam’s one time sin.
This is why Jesus could not have a human father.
Jesus had to be holy and separate from sinners according to Hebrews 7:26.
Well, that is if you believe Hebrews 7:26.

Anyway, Philippians 2:3-8 is about how we should be humble to obey God and consider others better than ourselves by serving them.
Jesus came to serve us by obeying in our place and dying on the cross. But this was not at the expense of His deity or the use of His divine power entirely. Yes, Jesus operated miracles by the Father and the Holy Spirit.

You said:
Hang in their bud... maybe someday you'll get it! View attachment 258634
I can say the same for you, friend.

You said:
I never said He did not have access to the power of God during His earthly ministry.
But you don’t believe He used that power?
I think my next post to you will be to go down the list of verses that show Jesus had and used His own power during His earthly ministry.

You said:
He ministered as a man filled with the Holy Ghost during His ministry.
Yes, Jesus had the body of a man and yes, Jesus operated by the Holy Spirit. That is no more conflict that Jesus operating by the power of the Father at other times, anymore than He would operate by His own power as God.

You said:
(But, He went to the Cross as THE Lamb of God.)
John the baptist said, Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world. So Jesus was called the Lamb of God before even going to the cross.

You said:
Just like WE are supposed to be doing.
Right, I am not in disagreement with you that we are to obey God and be humble and serve others like Jesus did. We are not to boast in ourselves and live our best life now. We are to deny ourselves and pick up our cross and follow Jesus, just as Jesus denied Himself and obeyed God the Father and His commands. No doubt about it.

You said:
John 14:10
Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
Right, this verse is true. Jesus operated miracles by the Father. But Jesus also operated by the Holy Spirit at times, too. So if that is the case, then Jesus could also operate by His own power, as well. Then again, I will have to show you this in my next post (seeing this post is getting really long).

You said:
John 5:19
Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.


Jesus specifically said He was not doing things in His Own power... the Father was working thru Him.
Sorry, brother. Your not reading the verse correctly here. Read the latter half of John 5:19 you just quoted to me. It says what he sees the Father do, the Son does likewise. Meaning, Jesus does things that He sees His Father do. Meaning, the statement that says “the Son cando nothing of himself” is saying that Jesus is not doing something that He does not see His Father doing. If He sees His Father heal, Jesus can do likewise.

I highlighted the words in blue for you to read it more closely.
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
2,070
335
83
Brother Cloud has quite a few good articles on the Bible version issue, including a solid defense of 1 John 5:7. Check out all his articles and papers at WayofLife.org.

As to the deficiencies of the Septuagint, Alfred Edersheim was a 19th century pastor and scholar who was well versed in Hebrew and Greek. He wrote a critique of the Septuagint in his book The Life and Times of Jesus the Messiah. This book itself is worth acquiring and reading since he has some excellent insights. You can either download it or get it from Amazon. The only problem with Edersheim is that he "bought" the theory of Westcott and Hort (which to me was quite surprising and very disappointing). So he often goes to the critical text to "fix" what is in the Received Text. That spoils his book quite a bit.

Actually a lot of good Christian conservative scholars were also taken by the nonsense of Westcott and Hort. But that was not the case with Dean John William Burgon (also 19th century). You should invest in all his books and many are also available at Amazon. The Revision Revised gives a lengthy defense of 1 Timothy 3:16 (GOD was manifest in the flesh) but also shows exactly how the critical text of W&H is corrupt. And his book The Last Twelve Verses of Mark defends those 12 verses with actual manuscript evidence.

You can also get all of Dean Burgon's books from The Bible for Today (https://www.biblefortoday.org/). They include the above as well as The Traditional Text of the Holy Gospels, Causes of Corruption of the Traditional Text, Early Church Fathers' Witness to Antiquity of Traditional Text.

The Bible for Today has a huge number of books and articles regarding the Bible version issue, corrupt modern bibles, etc.
Thanks a bunch. I will have to check them out when I have the time.
My favorite videos defending the Comma (i.e., 1 John 5:7) are these three vids:

Discussion on Fulgentes and others in defense of the Comma. Really cool.

(Note: I am not Calvinist, even though author of the video is. The author of the video goes into talking about the Greek Grammarian brought up by Nick Sayers from one of his KJV debates involving the Comma here).

Good overall quick evidences given for the Comma.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,113
3,687
113
The vast majority of Christians I've encountered don't care about this issue at all.
The vast majority of Christians believe the modern versions are the KJV with just updated, modern English.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,774
113
The vast majority of Christians I've encountered don't care about this issue at all.
When you seriously think about it , that is sad. And sadly a lot of evangelists, pastors, teachers, professors, theologians, etc. have not carefully looked into this issue either. They simply went along with the pro-modern version propaganda and the anti-KJV propaganda.

But after all if one does not have an uncorrupted Bible in his hands, he will be misled by many verses and words. However, for a Bible-believing Christian (and for Christ) every word in Scripture is a word from God and a word by God (Mt 4:4). Even whether a word is singular or plural can make a difference to doctrine: Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ. (Gal 3:16)

The King James Bible (among translations being used currently) adheres exclusively to the traditional Hebrew Masoretic Text and the Greek Received Text (Textus Receptus). And that is why the Trinitarian Bible Society will publish only this translation.
 

Bible_Highlighter

Well-known member
Nov 28, 2023
2,070
335
83
@JimmyTheLock

Okay. So you are saying Jesus had power as God, but He did not use that power.

First, the NLT does not say that. It says he gave up His divine privileges.
Meaning, the NLT is wrongfully saying that Jesus was like Superman who gave up his superpowers to be with Lois Lane.
This is incorrect and it is not what the KJV says (Which was the trusted Bible for hundreds of years long before the Modern Bibles showed up).

Second, I am not sure you understand or not, but the Modern Bibles are based on an entirely different Hebrew and Greek texts than those of the King James Bible. The texts that underly the Modern Bibles come from Westcott and Hort who were heavily into Catholic practices, and they sympathetic to Unitarianism, Evolution, and Liberalism.

Anyway, lets discuss these verses below that show how Jesus had power as God during His earthly ministry, and how He would have used such power.

Jesus had power as God:
(During His Earthly Ministry and He used that Power):

1. Jesus said He has power to raise the dead to life just as the Father had power to raise the dead (John 5:21).
Please take note that this was said just after Jesus healed the man at the pool of Bethesda. Meaning, Jesus laying claim to ownership to the miracle He just did involving the Pharisees. Yes, he did not bring him back to life physically. But he did make his legs that were dead to come back alive and He also no doubt had led this man to trust in Him (Which is spiritual life). So this is an example of Jesus acting on behalf of his own power.

2. Jesus had the power to forgive sins and give eternal life (Mark 2:7) (Luke 7:44-50) (John 14:6).
This is clearly an act of God here. Only God can truly absolve sin in regards to our salvation and give us eternal life. No man could ever do this. So clearly Jesus is exercising His divine power as God here to do so.

3 Jesus had power to take away the sins of the entire world (John 1:29).
Jesus took away the sins of the world by His death. Only God could do this. Jesus took on our sins in the Garden of Gethsemane in His body. He sweat great drops of blood in this process. No human could do this. Only God could. God is our Savior and not some mere man. Yes, Jesus had a flesh and blood body. No doubt about it. But no mere man has any power for such a task. Only God could truly have the power and strength to carry and take away our sin. In other words, man cannot resist his own sin, and yet for a man to take on the whole sins of the world? Not possible by the strength or power of some mere man alone.

4. Jesus Christ said wherever two or three are gathered in my name, there I am among them (Matthew 18:20). This was said to the people he was around and not to just us today. Meaning, Jesus can be in His spirit among other believers who went away to some other location. Remember, God is Omnipresent. Jesus can be anywhere in His spirit as He desires because He is God. No man has such a power or ability. Only God has this ability. This power must have been exercised because if believers were gathered in His name when Jesus was not around before the cross, He was there with them (just as He said).

5. Jesus can make His home or abode inside of us if we keep His commandments (John 14:15). This is a part of His divine power and or abilities as God. Humans born to two parents cannot make their homes inside other people. Jesus did not say he would only do this after His resurrection, either. He said it to those around Him and therefore Jesus would have exercised this power because some follower of His would have strived to keep His commands.

6 “This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him.” (John 2:11). This was a direct statement. Meaning, Christ’s miracle at the wedding of Cana manifested His glory. This was his first miracle done by Jesus, and it was a part of His showing forth His deity as God. The apostle John did not say that the Lord Jesus manifested the Holy Spirit’s glory, but His own glory. So when Jesus turned water into wine, it was an act that manifested His own power as the Son of God.

7. ”And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.” (John 14:13-14). This was said by Jesus before the cross, and answering prayers is definitely a divine act of God. Please pay close attention to what Jesus said. He said, “I will do it“ in reference to answering prayer. So if a person prays for a healing in His name, he will do it. He will be the One who will heal them and do it.


Please address each of these points. Well, I know it is a lot of verses. So take 2-3 of them at a time and please show me how you think that these are not saying Jesus was operating by His own power as God.
 
Last edited:

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,432
13,775
113
When you seriously think about it , that is sad.
People have other concerns that for them are more important. The main doctrines are consistent across a wide variety of translations, making this issue secondary at best.