Well, at a lot of places in Scripture. Did you ever wonder why Jesus Christ Himself often times referred to Himself as the "Son of Man" and as the "Son of God?" He's the Son of God on His Father's side because He has His Father's nature. He's the Son of Man on His mother's side because she's human.
Jesus has two natures, one on His Father's side which is deity and one on His mother's side which is human. It's a universal law that a son (or a daughter for that matter) shares the same nature as its father. Dogs begat dogs, beavers begat other beavers etc. You can prove me wrong by giving me an example of a son that does not share the same nature as its father.
The Jews understood all the claims that Jesus made. John 5:17-18, "My Father is working until now, and I Myself am working." Vs18, "For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because (or why?) He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God."
How about John 8:56-59. "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad." Vs57, "The Jews therefore said to Him, You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham? Vs58, Jesus said to them, Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born I am." This means that Jesus existed before Abraham and in fact created him. Vs59, "Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him etc.:
Now for John 10:30, "I and the Father We are one." Of course they are one in purpose but this is not what Jesus meant. He and the Father are one in nature or essence. Look what the Jews say at John 10:31, "The Jews took up stones AGAIN to stone Him. (Why?) Vs32, "Jesus answered them, "I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?" Vs33, "The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man make Yourself out GOD."
At vs34 Jesus brings up Psalm 82:6, the subject of "gods." Here again, why? I will explain it later. Now we go to the trial record at Matthew 26:57-65. The high priest Caiaphas is presiding and false witnesses are presented that goes back three years. Vs61, "This man stated, I am able to destroy the temple of God and to rebuild it in three days." If you go back to John 2;19, "Jesus answered them and said to them, "Destroy this temple and in three days I will raise it up." The Apostle John says at John 2:21, "But He was speaking of the temple of His body."
Now back to the trial. The high priest Caiaphas is getting impatient because Jesus is keeping silent, (vs63). Then at vs63 the high priest states, "I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us whether You are the Christ, the Son of God." The priest is asking Jesus two things to swear to. (1) Are you the Christ/Messiah and (2) the Son of God. At Luke 22:70, Jesus says, "Yes, I am."
At vs65, "Then the high priest tore his robes, saying, He has blasphemed! What further need do we have of witnesses? Behold, you have heard the blasphemy;" Something to think about. It is not a crime to claim to be the Messiah. People have made the claim even today and they were not killed. Another thing, why would the Jews accuse Jesus for claiming to be the Son of God since the Jews themselves claim to be sons of God?
Look what the Apostle John states at John 20:30-31, "Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; vs31, but these have been written that you may believe that (1) Jesus is the Christ/Messiah, and (2) the Son of God; and that believing you many have life in His name."
The problem with the Jews, and with others all through history and even today is they did not believe Jesus because He was who He claimed to be which means there was no blasphemy.
IN GOD THE SON,
blluto