I'm
not suggesting the person in the verses below was the writer of the gospel we label "John," mind you, but just supplying these verses to show that
not all of Jesus' "disciples" were "unlearned and ignorant men" (said specifically regarding "Peter and John" in Acts 4:13)...
Mar 15:43 -
Joseph of Arimathaea, an honourable counsellor, which also waited for the kingdom of God, came, and went in boldly unto Pilate, and craved the body of Jesus.
Jhn 19:38 -
And after this
Joseph of Arimathaea,
being a disciple of Jesus, but secretly for fear of the Jews, besought Pilate that he might take away the body of Jesus: and Pilate gave him leave. He came therefore, and took the body of Jesus.
Mat 27:57 -
When the even was come, there came
a rich man of Arimathaea, named Joseph,
who also himself was Jesus' disciple:
Luk 23:50-53 -
And, behold, there was a man named
Joseph, a counsellor; and he was a good man, and a just:
(The same had not consented to the counsel and deed of them ; )
he was of Arimathaea, a city of the Jews: who also himself waited for the kingdom of God.
This man went unto Pilate, and begged the body of Jesus.
And he took it down, and wrapped it
in linen, and laid it in a sepulchre that was hewn in stone,
wherein never man before was laid. [see also Isa53:9 re: "the rich"]
So, here's a "disciple" ^ who was both "rich" and a "counsellor" (certainly not what one would call an "unlearned and ignorant" man, as was said about "Peter and John" [fishermen-disciples] in Acts 4:13).
Who's to say that Jesus
only had this
ONE "disciple" who apparently had some smarts, and
all others HAD to be "unlearned and ignorant men" (just because this was said of "Peter and John" Acts 4:13)??
Dumb argument, as I see it.
And why not (in the same vein) think that the majority of His disciples were rich and smart like this guy--if,
like the OP-vid-speaker is doing, pulling out ONE VERSE (Acts 4:13) to blanketly declare that "unlearned and ignorant men" are descriptions entirely applicable to
ALL of Jesus' disciples... (
)
The OP-vid-speaker pretty much seems to make the point that the writers of the gospels had to be smarties (highly-educated, etc, he said--because of the style of writing, etc), but that
all of His disciples were dummies (according to his flawed reasoning), thus (he seems to conclude) that these accounts are inadmissible as
reliable historical documents... (huh??)... and that therefore
the gospels were NOT written by "eyewitnesses"... (
double huh????).
How he comes to these conclusions... seems to be...
only so much human-reasoning (read:
crazy-talk, LOL).
____________
Another question I have: Does he also conclude that Peter was
too ignorant to have written the
epistle of 1 Peter (since it was apparently written in Greek, which he's supposed to be "ignorant" of according to the OP-vid-speaker)? Or is it just the HISTORICAL parts of Scripture according to him (i.e. "the gospels" in particular) that Jesus' "disciples" (specifically, "eyewitnesses") could not have been relied upon to record accurately (thus inadmissible as reliable historical documents), according to the OP-vid-speaker? Likewise, was John too "unlearned" to write "Revelation" or was being a fisherman adequate enough for such a writing, so long as it isn't admitted into the category of "historical[-records] documents" which are considered in the courts of those judging such things
as reliable or not (like "the gospels" would be)?
Just wondering...