I'm not sure why he alludes to the idea that the gospel we call / label "John" was not written by an "eyewitness"...
...when 21:24 says, "
this is the disciple who is testifying concerning these things, and he wrote these things, and we have known that his testimony is true," where the word
"THIS" refers back to the guy having just been spoken of in the preceding verse (the guy Peter was asking Jesus about)... who happens to be the one who leaned on Jesus' breast at the supper (per v.20), the disciple whom Jesus loved, who had also ran to the tomb with Peter, and who was the ONLY one of which that text states "he saw [the linen cloths] and BELIEVED" (this wasn't said of Peter, note); and who the text states was also present at the Cross. (He doesn't have to be one of "the 12"... so who's to say this person was "uneducated" like the fishermen-disciples were supposed to be [esp. Peter & John referred to in Acts 4:13], per the OP-vid-speaker? Jesus had MANY "disciples," recall... Nowhere does scripture state that the writer of this gospel was "John"... yet it seems the OP-vid-speaker is assuming b/c "Peter and John" were "unlearned and ignorant men," that the writer of that gospel ALSO must have been so... Why does he assume this??) See also what is said in 20:31.
I had another thought, but it flitted away while I was pondering the utterly poor reasoning skills of the OP-vid-speaker...
Oh yeah, so... if I'm in my late 50's, can I not write about things I witnessed 45 years ago?? Like, the house I lived in as a small child, for example?? (historical things... ; why would we suppose that this info would be INACCURATE just because "40 years" separates them, b/f I write about it??)