Grasp that the Greek word for "know" in Acts 1:7, is a DISTINCT [DIFFERENT] Grk "know" word from the one in Matt24:36 (and parallels)... not to mention the one in 1Th5:1-2.
Then grasp that the "knows" word in Matt24:36 (and parallels), and stated BEFORE Jesus' death, is in the "PERFECT indicative," so is not reading in the way you are suggesting it reads.
Also study the "CHRONOLOGY" issues (and progressive revelation IN SCRIPTURE).
I strongly suggest you study this out... (don't take the lazy-man's way out of it)
Then grasp that the "knows" word in Matt24:36 (and parallels), and stated BEFORE Jesus' death, is in the "PERFECT indicative," so is not reading in the way you are suggesting it reads.
Also study the "CHRONOLOGY" issues (and progressive revelation IN SCRIPTURE).
I strongly suggest you study this out... (don't take the lazy-man's way out of it)
What is present active indicative?
In the Present Active Indicative, the kind of action is linear, the relationship of the subject to the verb is active, i.e. the subject is performing the action rather than being acted upon, and the degree of contingency is zero, i.e., reality rather than hypothetical activity is in view.
Furthermore, what is the perfect stem in Latin? The perfect stem is from the 3rd principal part of the verb, and is usually different from the present stem.
Likewise, how do you translate perfect active?
It differs from the imperfect in that the imperfect relates ongoing, repeated, or continuous action. For this reason, the perfect is translated as "I have praised", "I did praise, or simply "I praised". To form the perfect active subjunctive, find the perfect stem, add "-eri-" then add the regular personal endings.
What does the indicative mood mean in Greek?
There are three moods in Greek: the indicative, the subjunctive and the imperative. The infinitive and the participle are condidered as moods as well. The indicative mood (οριστική) presents the action or the event as something real or certain, in other words as an objective fact.