What examples of double fulfillments of prophecy exists in the OT alone?

Backtrack, foot in mouth, I get what you are saying! LOL!

I guess I was speaking about "double meaning/interpretation" for a text. But you are specifically talking about "prophecy," and I didn't pay enough attention to the wording.

So, you are right, and I was wrong!

But then the text in Hosea 11:1 clearly does have a double interpretation, but it is not a double prophecy.

If everything testifies of the christ ....then it can.

Mary and joseph fled to Egypt for safety sake led by the Holy Spirit.
Israel and the exodus.

Matthew was quoting the OT Prophet. I understand after that, the chapter doesn't fit the Messiah himself, but the OT is written that way because God's people, despite our failings, become one with him. Like this,


And when thy days be fulfilled, and thou shalt sleep with thy fathers, I will set up thy seed after thee, which shall proceed out of thy bowels, and I will establish his kingdom. He shall build an house for my name, and I will stablish the throne of his kingdom for ever. 2Sam.7:12-13

This is Messianic.

I will be his father, and he shall be my son. If he commit iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the children of men: But my mercy shall not depart away from him, as I took it from Saul, whom I put away before thee. 2Sam.7:14-15

This is about others.

And yet, the prophet was not making a prophecy. He is recalling a historical event that happened 700 years before Hosea existed.

I guess you over looked:
"Pardes" refers to (types of) approaches to biblical exegesis in rabbinic Judaism or to interpretation of text in Torah study. The term, sometimes also rendered PaRDeS, is an acronym formed from the initials of the following four approaches:

Peshat (פְּשָׁט‎) – "surface" ("straight") or the literal (direct) meaning.[1]
Remez (רֶמֶז‎) – "hints" or the deep (allegoric: hidden or symbolic) meaning beyond just the literal sense.
Derash (דְּרַשׁ‎) – from Hebrew darash: "inquire" ("seek") – the comparative (midrashic) meaning, as given through similar occurrences.
Sod (סוֹד‎) (pronounced with a long O as in 'lore') – "secret" ("mystery") or the esoteric/mystical meaning, as given through inspiration or revelation.
Each type of Pardes interpretation examines the extended meaning of a text.

I lost the link, too many pages open.

Hosea was written about a historical event 700 years before. It was not a prophecy.

Hosea 11
Good News Translation
God's Love for His Rebellious People
11 The Lord says,

“When Israel was a child, I loved him
and called him out of Egypt as my son.[a]
2 But the more I called to him,
the more he turned away from me.[c]
My people sacrificed to Baal;
they burned incense to idols.
3 Yet I was the one who taught Israel to walk.
I took my people up in my arms,[d]
but they did not acknowledge that I took care of them.
4 I drew them to me with affection and love.
I picked them up and held them to my cheek;
I bent down to them and fed them

As you can see the first four verses are history.

According to Matthew, he was, whether he knew it or not.

So, Matthew made up a prophecy where there was not one. smile

And yet, the prophet was not making a prophecy. He is recalling a historical event that happened 700 years before Hosea existed.

I guess you over looked:
"Pardes" refers to (types of) approaches to biblical exegesis in rabbinic Judaism or to interpretation of text in Torah study. The term, sometimes also rendered PaRDeS, is an acronym formed from the initials of the following four approaches:

Peshat (פְּשָׁט‎) – "surface" ("straight") or the literal (direct) meaning.[1]
Remez (רֶמֶז‎) – "hints" or the deep (allegoric: hidden or symbolic) meaning beyond just the literal sense.
Derash (דְּרַשׁ‎) – from Hebrew darash: "inquire" ("seek") – the comparative (midrashic) meaning, as given through similar occurrences.
Sod (סוֹד‎) (pronounced with a long O as in 'lore') – "secret" ("mystery") or the esoteric/mystical meaning, as given through inspiration or revelation.
Each type of Pardes interpretation examines the extended meaning of a text.

I lost the link, too many pages open.

I think Matthew was simply using Derash from above jewish way of interpretation back in his day.

Isaiah 7:14 is not double prophecy, but was specifically speaking about Mary as the virgin and the birth of Christ. No other human being that was born could be called Emmanuel, which means 'God with us.'

Psalm 72

It was fulfilled by Solomons kingdom of Israel and will be fulfilled by Jesus future kingdom reign

Also Psalm 2 - fulfilled by King David, Jesus first coming and when He comes 2nd time to set up kingdom and probably refers to after the 1000 year Millenium when rebellion happens.

There’s so many double prophecies in multiple ways everywhere. Damascus being made a ruinous heap happened before and some could say it happened now. God showed direct to many that so many Old Testament prophecies already fulfilled will happen again in different ways the endtimes catastrophies happen around the world.

Psalms 2
1Why are the [a]nations in an uproar [in turmoil against God],
And why do the people devise a vain and hopeless plot?
2The kings of the earth take their stand;
And the rulers take counsel together
Against the LORD and His Anointed (the Davidic King, the Messiah, the Christ), saying,
3“Let us break apart their [divine] bands [of restraint]
And cast away their cords [of control] from us.”

Well, when you factor in the fact that the child that was to be born was to be called "Immanuel" which means God with us, then it gets rid of the idea of the prophecy speaking about any other woman or child, i.e. no one else can be Emmanuel. And how many other virgin births were there? I'll venture to say, not a single one.

Again, fulfilled can also be translated as completed. The text meets the rules of typology.

My Hebrew NT does translate as completed.

"Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz, Isaiah’s future son, named with the same four words of the document, revealed the time frame of Israel’s and Syria’s defeat: sometime between the conception of Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz to “before the boy knows how to say ‘My father’ or ‘My mother’” (Isaiah 8:3–4). That is, Judah would be saved before Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz reached age 2, a total of less than three years, counting the child’s time in the womb. "
https://www.gotquestions.org/Maher-Shalal-Hash-Baz.html

read to here

Sir, no one else in the history of the world has been a virgin and given birth. And second, that child would not be called Emmanuel, which means God with us. So please, enough with trying to make Isaiah 7:14 a double fulfillment. It was a prophecy about Mary as the virgin and Jesus as Emmanuel.

I feel now that you are arguing for the just for the sake of arguing. If you want to believe in another virgin birth other than Christ to Mary, then you are free to do so.

The lady in Isaiah was not a virgin. She was married, and from the Hebrew, she was with child.

Isaiah 7:14
Easy-to-Read Version
14 But the Lord will still show you this sign:

The young woman is pregnant
and will give birth to a son.
She will name him Immanuel

Note Mary was already pregnant when Matthew quoted Isaiah.


Matthew 1:18-25

Easy-to-Read Version



The Birth of Jesus the Messiah
18 This is how the birth of Jesus the Messiah happened. His mother Mary was engaged to marry Joseph. But before they married, he learned that she was expecting a baby. (She was pregnant by the power of the Holy Spirit.) 19 Mary’s husband, Joseph, was a good man. He did not want to cause her public disgrace, so he planned to divorce her secretly.
20 But after Joseph thought about this, an angel from the Lord came to him in a dream. The angel said, “Joseph, son of David, don’t be afraid to accept Mary to be your wife. The baby inside her is from the Holy Spirit. 21 She will give birth to a son. You will name him Jesus.[a] Give him that name because he will save his people from their sins.”
22 All this happened to make clear the full meaning of what the Lord said through the prophet: 23 “The virgin will be pregnant and will give birth to a son. They will name him Immanuel.” (Immanuel means “God with us.”)
24 When Joseph woke up, he did what the Lord’s angel told him to do. He married Mary. 25 But Joseph did not have sexual relations with her until her son was born. And he named him Jesus.

Jesus was named Jesus, not Immanuel. What gives?

I am going to post three chapters. look for intertextuality among them with the NT passages that quotes them.

Isaiah 7 & 8 Hosea 11