To what extent does the OT apply to Christians?

Hello.

I have recieved many mixed messages from Christians regarding the OT. One on hand, many argue that the dietary laws, practises such as circumcision and obeying the Sabbath do not need to be observed. Many other Christians argue homosexuality should not be practised on the basis that it is forbidden in the OT.

Would anyone like to offer some clarity?

Thank you

Hello.

I have recieved many mixed messages from Christians regarding the OT. One on hand, many argue that the dietary laws, practises such as circumcision and obeying the Sabbath do not need to be observed. Many other Christians argue homosexuality should not be practised on the basis that it is forbidden in the OT.

Would anyone like to offer some clarity?

Thank you

I can only repond on the two points you have brought forward..

1) dietary laws..

Jesus said that it was not what went into a mans mouth that defiled Him, But what came out.. Later the apostles advised not to burden the gentiles with these dietary laws.. They did however advise the gentiles not to eat meat that had been offered to idols..

2) Jesus never rescinded any of the laws against people having sexual relations with people of the same sex..
In the NT we read the following..

Romans 1: KJV
20 "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: {21} Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. {22} Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools, {23} And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things. {24} Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves: {25} Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen. {26} For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: {27} And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet. {28} And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;"

This is talking about people being given over to sexual deviancy. The description is clearly talking about homosexuality and that metal state is reprobate..

So on the first issue Jesus made it clear that eating foods did not make a person immoral or moral and the Apostles later gave only basic guidance to the gentiles on their eating habits.. But on the second issue Jesus never declared homosexuality to not ok and later Paul's letter Romans made it clear that such activity was reprobate and a vile affection and the dishonoring of their bodies..

Your question was a little confusing in your thread title, relative to your first post.

What you REALLY mean is “should Christians follow the Law of Moses”.

We have only two “Laws” now.


Matthew 22:37-39
New King James Version


37 Jesus said to him,“‘You shall love the Lordyour God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.’ 38 This is the first and great commandment. 39 And the second is like it: ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.’

So the laws of the OT are not relevant to Christians. I understand.

So ,the laws of the OT are not relevant to Christians. I understand.

So the laws of the OT are not relevant to Christians. I understand.

Hello.

I have recieved many mixed messages from Christians regarding the OT. One on hand, many argue that the dietary laws, practises such as circumcision and obeying the Sabbath do not need to be observed. Many other Christians argue homosexuality should not be practised on the basis that it is forbidden in the OT.

Would anyone like to offer some clarity?

Thank you

Would anyone like to offer some clarity?

sin is still sin.

Adultery is still sin. Homosexuality is sin. Bearing false witness is sin.

What jesus did was save us from the penalty of committing those sins (death) but they are still sin.

as for dietary laws, They were given to the jews.. As a jew living in the covenant, They probebly should still keep those laws. As a gentile. we never were obligated to keep them. But even then. No one will be saved or lost by keeping or not keeping those commands.

The OT is as much for Christians as is the NT. Indeed the entire Bible is a necessity. At the same time we need to be aware that certain aspects of the Old Covenant (the Law of Moses) are null and void. Dietary laws no longer apply. But homosexuality is condemned in the NT, so that is a non-issue. And there are many instructions in the OT which are as applicable today as they were originally. You need to apply spiritual discernment.

Christ fulfilled everything related to the temple, the Levitical priesthood, the sacrifices and offering, the feasts, festivals, and holy days. And that is why the temple veil was torn from top to bottom. There is no more sacrifice for sins. And without the temple, none of the feasts can be observed.

Sin is still sin.

A is A.

Who are 'the jews'?

What would you argue the 'entire Bible' is? When was this Bible codified?

Hello.

I have recieved many mixed messages from Christians regarding the OT. One on hand, many argue that the dietary laws, practises such as circumcision and obeying the Sabbath do not need to be observed. Many other Christians argue homosexuality should not be practised on the basis that it is forbidden in the OT.

Would anyone like to offer some clarity?

Thank you

As a jew living in the covenant, They probebly should still keep those laws