WHICH Bible "version" Is Authorized By God?

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CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,112
4,374
113
#81
Grace And Peace, Precious friend(s). I believe it is a very serious matter
to determine Which version of “the Bible” Is “The Correct Word Of God!”

I am sure we All agree, do we not, that we are All going to each give an "account To HIM,"
(2 Corinthians 5:10), According to His Gospel of Grace, To Paul (Romans 2:16), correct?
Thus, in Light of Paul's "...knowing therefore The Terror Of The LORD..." {v. 11}, to me,
I humbly present why I personally believe KJV Is “The Best Bible” to read/study:

(1) Q: Is IT not God’s Pure And PRESERVED WORD!?:

The WORDS Of The LORD Are Pure WORDS: as silver tried
in a furnace of earth, Purified Seven Times. Thou Shalt Keep THEM,
O LORD, Thou Shalt PRESERVE THEM from this generation for ever.”

(Psalms 12:6-7 KJB!)

Now, Comparing This, with a couple of newer versions, what do we find?

NASB: “The words of the Lord are pure words…You, Lord, will keep them;
You will protect him from this generation forever.

NIV: “The words of the Lord are flawless…You, Lord, will keep the needy
safe
and will protect us forever from the wicked,...

Do these Also claim God’s “Purity And Preservation for ALL generations”?

They both claim “pure/flawless” words, but, then they both
Omit Some Of: “Preserve THEM from this generation for ever” and
Change words TO the noted “Different” words above. How is that Purity?

Q: Will The Holy Spirit, our Blessed Teacher, Help us understand
The Purity of These Words,” considering these newer versions
have Changed Them? How, then, do we “study AND agree”?

{Diligent/Noble Berean students can find MANY of These Changes
{And, Also “omissions”}, and Prayerfully/Carefully decide for themselves
about the “Purity of God’s Words,” and which version is best, for them,
correct?}

(2) I personally have decided on Both “The Purity And The
Preservation Of The Authorized Version/underlying manuscripts,”

for the following reasons:

Q2: Is The Following the “Reason” why the newer versions Cannot claim:

God’s Promise To “Preserve HIS Pure Word for ALL generations”?

Since the newer versions did not appear until about 1880,
would not that be a “Lack Of Preservation,” due to the fact
that the underlying {older/better?} manuscripts had to be
“Re-discovered/translated,” Skipping the generations since 1611?

Can that be God’s Purpose For HIS Pure/Preserved Word?

+

(3) God's Pure/Preserved Word Is ABOVE All Else! Is IT not?:

"I will worship toward Thy holy temple, and praise Thy HOLY
Name for Thy LovingKindness and for Thy TRUTH: for Thou
Hast MAGNIFIED Thy WORD Above All Thy Name!
"
( Psalms 138:2 KJB! )

imho, unless I am mistaken, on Judgment Day, I would Not want
one of the "good deeds done in my body," to be “Bad, by my claiming”
that corrupt/Changed/Missing words {translated from older/hidden
{UNpreserved} manuscripts into “newer easier-to-read/understand
versions,” are to be:

God's Pure Word, Which Is Magnified Above All Of God’s Pure/Holy Name,”

would you, Precious friend(s)?
Finally:

IF it is true that “Many {~~ 64,000?} Of “God’s PURE Words”
are missing {ie: Acts 8:37 NASB et al?} from newer versions, then,
IF the “version user” Cannot read Them {because They are missing},
how is it possible then, for that one to obey God’s Exhortation:

“man Shall Not live by bread alone, But By EVERY Word
That Proceedeth Out Of The Mouth Of God!
(Matthew 4:4 cp Luke 4:4; Deuteronomy 8:3 KJB!)?

Just wondering: How can God's "children of light" be in agreement
when each uses a Different Problematic version?: Are we not all,
By A Faithful God:

"...Called Into Fellowship With God's SON, The LORD JESUS CHRIST"
(
1 Corinthians 1:9 KJB!), And, should we not all be:

"Endeavouring to keep The Unity Of God's Spirit In The Bond Of
PEACE!..." (
Ephesians 4:3 KJB!), obeying God's Exhortations!:

...speak...the things which become Sound Doctrine!”
(
Titus 2:1 cp "SAME mind And judgment!" 1 Corinthians 1:10 KJB!)?

Being faithful And Pleasing to our LORD and Saviour, JESUS CHRIST, Correct?

--------------------------------------------

Addendum: Some do Not like archaic words in God’s Preserved Word,
but isn’t that Why God Commands us to “study”? I.e.:

“...we which are alive and remain unto the coming of The LORD shall not
prevent [precede] them which are asleep…” (1 Thessalonians 4:15 KJB!)

Once I “studied & found the meaning,” have never had any problem since. Amen?
+
I would also, when Prayerfully/Carefully “studying, like to know," When "God Is
Addressing"
one person {singular: thee, thine, & thou}, or More than one person
{plural: ye/you/your}. Could make a Huge Difference in His Pure Words, correct?

Since newer versions have Totally Lost these distinctions, considering
“you/your” Could be Either singular OR plural, causing Confusion, of
which
God Is Not the author of,” (1 Corinthians 14:33 KJB!), correct,
Precious friend(s)?

Conclusion: Besides changing God’s PURE Words, is there not Also
HIS “Command NOT
to Add, Nor To Take Away From HIS Word!”?
(
Deuteronomy 4:2, 12:32; Proverbs 30:5-6; Revelation 22:18-19 KJB!)

So, yes, I sincerely believe This Is “A Very Serious And Important”
decision Of faith to be made! After all, "a corrupt {#} version Will
Cause a corrupt faith,” correct? Since God’s PURE Word Teaches:

...faith cometh by hearing, and hearing By The WORD Of God!”
(
Romans 10:17 KJB!)

Be Blessed!

{#} Corruption had Already Begun in "Paul's day," thus it should not
surprise us, that it very well Could be in our midst, today, correct?:

"For we are not as many, which corrupt The Word Of God: but as
of sincerity, but as of God, in The Sight Of God speak we in CHRIST."
(2 Corinthians 2:17 KJB!)

Precious friend(s), instead of All of the Mass Confusion, is not
God's Simple Will Much Better?
I read a KJVNKJVNIVNASBAMP1600
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,114
965
113
#82
The KJV 1611 translation has marginal notes from the New and Old Testaments to the Apocrypha and vice versa.
It also contains 15 more books than the one you are using.
Apocrypha, what does this mean to you? For marginal notes of 1611 were to show that the KJV translators were in full awareness of the other reading aside from the TR, however, they used it what they did knew were the best text that agrees with the majority text. The rule is to keep not any notes as much as possible and they were there only to clarify Heb or Greek for the other reading.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
13,112
4,374
113
#83
Apocrypha, what does this mean to you? For marginal notes of 1611 were to show that the KJV translators were in full awareness of the other reading aside from the TR, however, they used it what they did knew were the best text that agrees with the majority text. The rule is to keep not any notes as much as possible and they were there only to clarify Heb or Greek for the other reading.
Apocrypha means : hidden
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,614
13,863
113
#84
I can Clearly see the Critics wish us All to be Discouraged And remain in the Massive Confusion that Abounds, because:
Confusion? I'm not confused at all. I understand the issues surrounding the English translations, because I have done my homework rather thank drinking the KJV-only Kool-Aid.

Kinda late, ain't it? IF you look at my signature, Every One of those "studies" is Divisive!
Yawn. Voluminous signatures just waste space.

When is someone In The Body Of CHRIST going to start praying, like a Few Precious friends
are doing, calling for UNITY, instead of All The Massive Division of 8 Different kinds of
water baptismS being "claimed" today, Confusing The Different "BaptismS of, in, With, or
BY
The HOLY Spirit {Is HE not "GRIEVED" over all this?}, Confusion of tongues, miracles, etc...
What do you want to discuss in this thread: Unity? Baptism? English Bible translations? You're bringing in the confusion here.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,614
13,863
113
#86
@[U]382AD382AD382AD[/U]:

Putting "Happy" icons on everyone's post does little except make people wonder why. Perhaps you'd like to join the conversation rather than merely applauding from the sidelines?
 

throughfaith

Well-known member
Aug 4, 2020
10,467
1,593
113
#87
Therefore, by your reasoning, the KJV is corrupt, because it was made by... TRANSLATORS!
No I'm saying that if a translation is corrupt that would be why . The bias of the Esv translators is a good example. Surely its no coincidence that its the Calvinists favourite?
 
S

selfdissolving

Guest
#88
The original languages are the best.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,778
113
#89
there is no perfect translation period. Go would not authorized a non perfect Bible, he can use it, he has been for centuries,
We should note that until the coming of Christ there was only one Tanakh (Hebrew Bible). And since 1611 AD, the primary English translation was the Authorized Version, which was specifically designed to supersede all other English translations (which is exactly what happened).

As to modern versions, if you start with a corrupted root, you end up with corrupted fruit. But some people hoard the rotten apples, and throw away the good ones.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#90
Grace And Peace, Precious friend(s). I believe it is a very serious matter
to determine Which version of “the Bible” Is “The Correct Word Of God!”

I am sure we All agree, do we not, that we are All going to each give an "account To HIM,"
(2 Corinthians 5:10), According to His Gospel of Grace, To Paul (Romans 2:16), correct?
Thus, in Light of Paul's "...knowing therefore The Terror Of The LORD..." {v. 11}, to me,
I humbly present why I personally believe KJV Is “The Best Bible” to read/study:

(1) Q: Is IT not God’s Pure And PRESERVED WORD!?:

The WORDS Of The LORD Are Pure WORDS: as silver tried
in a furnace of earth, Purified Seven Times. Thou Shalt Keep THEM,
O LORD, Thou Shalt PRESERVE THEM from this generation for ever.”

(Psalms 12:6-7 KJB!)

Now, Comparing This, with a couple of newer versions, what do we find?

NASB: “The words of the Lord are pure words…You, Lord, will keep them;
You will protect him from this generation forever.

NIV: “The words of the Lord are flawless…You, Lord, will keep the needy
safe
and will protect us forever from the wicked,...

Do these Also claim God’s “Purity And Preservation for ALL generations”?

They both claim “pure/flawless” words, but, then they both
Omit Some Of: “Preserve THEM from this generation for ever” and
Change words TO the noted “Different” words above. How is that Purity?

Q: Will The Holy Spirit, our Blessed Teacher, Help us understand
The Purity of These Words,” considering these newer versions
have Changed Them? How, then, do we “study AND agree”?

{Diligent/Noble Berean students can find MANY of These Changes
{And, Also “omissions”}, and Prayerfully/Carefully decide for themselves
about the “Purity of God’s Words,” and which version is best, for them,
correct?}

(2) I personally have decided on Both “The Purity And The
Preservation Of The Authorized Version/underlying manuscripts,”

for the following reasons:

Q2: Is The Following the “Reason” why the newer versions Cannot claim:

God’s Promise To “Preserve HIS Pure Word for ALL generations”?

Since the newer versions did not appear until about 1880,
would not that be a “Lack Of Preservation,” due to the fact
that the underlying {older/better?} manuscripts had to be
“Re-discovered/translated,” Skipping the generations since 1611?

Can that be God’s Purpose For HIS Pure/Preserved Word?

+

(3) God's Pure/Preserved Word Is ABOVE All Else! Is IT not?:

"I will worship toward Thy holy temple, and praise Thy HOLY
Name for Thy LovingKindness and for Thy TRUTH: for Thou
Hast MAGNIFIED Thy WORD Above All Thy Name!
"
( Psalms 138:2 KJB! )

imho, unless I am mistaken, on Judgment Day, I would Not want
one of the "good deeds done in my body," to be “Bad, by my claiming”
that corrupt/Changed/Missing words {translated from older/hidden
{UNpreserved} manuscripts into “newer easier-to-read/understand
versions,” are to be:

God's Pure Word, Which Is Magnified Above All Of God’s Pure/Holy Name,”

would you, Precious friend(s)?
Finally:

IF it is true that “Many {~~ 64,000?} Of “God’s PURE Words”
are missing {ie: Acts 8:37 NASB et al?} from newer versions, then,
IF the “version user” Cannot read Them {because They are missing},
how is it possible then, for that one to obey God’s Exhortation:

“man Shall Not live by bread alone, But By EVERY Word
That Proceedeth Out Of The Mouth Of God!
(Matthew 4:4 cp Luke 4:4; Deuteronomy 8:3 KJB!)?

Just wondering: How can God's "children of light" be in agreement
when each uses a Different Problematic version?: Are we not all,
By A Faithful God:

"...Called Into Fellowship With God's SON, The LORD JESUS CHRIST"
(
1 Corinthians 1:9 KJB!), And, should we not all be:

"Endeavouring to keep The Unity Of God's Spirit In The Bond Of
PEACE!..." (
Ephesians 4:3 KJB!), obeying God's Exhortations!:

...speak...the things which become Sound Doctrine!”
(
Titus 2:1 cp "SAME mind And judgment!" 1 Corinthians 1:10 KJB!)?

Being faithful And Pleasing to our LORD and Saviour, JESUS CHRIST, Correct?

--------------------------------------------

Addendum: Some do Not like archaic words in God’s Preserved Word,
but isn’t that Why God Commands us to “study”? I.e.:

“...we which are alive and remain unto the coming of The LORD shall not
prevent [precede] them which are asleep…” (1 Thessalonians 4:15 KJB!)

Once I “studied & found the meaning,” have never had any problem since. Amen?
+
I would also, when Prayerfully/Carefully “studying, like to know," When "God Is
Addressing"
one person {singular: thee, thine, & thou}, or More than one person
{plural: ye/you/your}. Could make a Huge Difference in His Pure Words, correct?

Since newer versions have Totally Lost these distinctions, considering
“you/your” Could be Either singular OR plural, causing Confusion, of
which
God Is Not the author of,” (1 Corinthians 14:33 KJB!), correct,
Precious friend(s)?

Conclusion: Besides changing God’s PURE Words, is there not Also
HIS “Command NOT
to Add, Nor To Take Away From HIS Word!”?
(
Deuteronomy 4:2, 12:32; Proverbs 30:5-6; Revelation 22:18-19 KJB!)

So, yes, I sincerely believe This Is “A Very Serious And Important”
decision Of faith to be made! After all, "a corrupt {#} version Will
Cause a corrupt faith,” correct? Since God’s PURE Word Teaches:

...faith cometh by hearing, and hearing By The WORD Of God!”
(
Romans 10:17 KJB!)

Be Blessed!

{#} Corruption had Already Begun in "Paul's day," thus it should not
surprise us, that it very well Could be in our midst, today, correct?:

"For we are not as many, which corrupt The Word Of God: but as
of sincerity, but as of God, in The Sight Of God speak we in CHRIST."
(2 Corinthians 2:17 KJB!)

Precious friend(s), instead of All of the Mass Confusion, is not
God's Simple Will Much Better?
If you truly believe that this is so serious then please do not let another day go bye before you get on Amazon.com or even Audilbe.com and get the book:
How to Choose a Translation for All Its Worth: A Guide to Understanding and Using Bible Versions
By Gordon D. Fee. and Mark L Strauss.

It is the best book out there for answering the question that people will ask "which is the best translation?"

I have been listening to the audible.com version and I have learned so much in just a few days. I recommend it to every serious student of the Bible, and every minister.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,177
3,700
113
#92
Proverbs 14:5 A faithful witness will not lie: but a false witness will utter lies.
 

Nebuchadnezzer

Well-known member
Feb 8, 2019
1,134
205
63
#93
Grace And Peace, Precious friend(s). I believe it is a very serious matter
to determine Which version of “the Bible” Is “The Correct Word Of God!”

I am sure we All agree, do we not, that we are All going to each give an "account To HIM,"
(2 Corinthians 5:10), According to His Gospel of Grace, To Paul (Romans 2:16), correct?
Thus, in Light of Paul's "...knowing therefore The Terror Of The LORD..." {v. 11}, to me,
I humbly present why I personally believe KJV Is “The Best Bible” to read/study:

(1) Q: Is IT not God’s Pure And PRESERVED WORD!?:

The WORDS Of The LORD Are Pure WORDS: as silver tried
in a furnace of earth, Purified Seven Times. Thou Shalt Keep THEM,
O LORD, Thou Shalt PRESERVE THEM from this generation for ever.”

(Psalms 12:6-7 KJB!)

Now, Comparing This, with a couple of newer versions, what do we find?

NASB: “The words of the Lord are pure words…You, Lord, will keep them;
You will protect him from this generation forever.

NIV: “The words of the Lord are flawless…You, Lord, will keep the needy
safe
and will protect us forever from the wicked,...

Do these Also claim God’s “Purity And Preservation for ALL generations”?

They both claim “pure/flawless” words, but, then they both
Omit Some Of: “Preserve THEM from this generation for ever” and
Change words TO the noted “Different” words above. How is that Purity?

Q: Will The Holy Spirit, our Blessed Teacher, Help us understand
The Purity of These Words,” considering these newer versions
have Changed Them? How, then, do we “study AND agree”?

{Diligent/Noble Berean students can find MANY of These Changes
{And, Also “omissions”}, and Prayerfully/Carefully decide for themselves
about the “Purity of God’s Words,” and which version is best, for them,
correct?}

(2) I personally have decided on Both “The Purity And The
Preservation Of The Authorized Version/underlying manuscripts,”

for the following reasons:

Q2: Is The Following the “Reason” why the newer versions Cannot claim:

God’s Promise To “Preserve HIS Pure Word for ALL generations”?

Since the newer versions did not appear until about 1880,
would not that be a “Lack Of Preservation,” due to the fact
that the underlying {older/better?} manuscripts had to be
“Re-discovered/translated,” Skipping the generations since 1611?

Can that be God’s Purpose For HIS Pure/Preserved Word?

+

(3) God's Pure/Preserved Word Is ABOVE All Else! Is IT not?:

"I will worship toward Thy holy temple, and praise Thy HOLY
Name for Thy LovingKindness and for Thy TRUTH: for Thou
Hast MAGNIFIED Thy WORD Above All Thy Name!
"
( Psalms 138:2 KJB! )

imho, unless I am mistaken, on Judgment Day, I would Not want
one of the "good deeds done in my body," to be “Bad, by my claiming”
that corrupt/Changed/Missing words {translated from older/hidden
{UNpreserved} manuscripts into “newer easier-to-read/understand
versions,” are to be:

God's Pure Word, Which Is Magnified Above All Of God’s Pure/Holy Name,”

would you, Precious friend(s)?
Finally:

IF it is true that “Many {~~ 64,000?} Of “God’s PURE Words”
are missing {ie: Acts 8:37 NASB et al?} from newer versions, then,
IF the “version user” Cannot read Them {because They are missing},
how is it possible then, for that one to obey God’s Exhortation:

“man Shall Not live by bread alone, But By EVERY Word
That Proceedeth Out Of The Mouth Of God!
(Matthew 4:4 cp Luke 4:4; Deuteronomy 8:3 KJB!)?

Just wondering: How can God's "children of light" be in agreement
when each uses a Different Problematic version?: Are we not all,
By A Faithful God:

"...Called Into Fellowship With God's SON, The LORD JESUS CHRIST"
(
1 Corinthians 1:9 KJB!), And, should we not all be:

"Endeavouring to keep The Unity Of God's Spirit In The Bond Of
PEACE!..." (
Ephesians 4:3 KJB!), obeying God's Exhortations!:

...speak...the things which become Sound Doctrine!”
(
Titus 2:1 cp "SAME mind And judgment!" 1 Corinthians 1:10 KJB!)?

Being faithful And Pleasing to our LORD and Saviour, JESUS CHRIST, Correct?

--------------------------------------------

Addendum: Some do Not like archaic words in God’s Preserved Word,
but isn’t that Why God Commands us to “study”? I.e.:

“...we which are alive and remain unto the coming of The LORD shall not
prevent [precede] them which are asleep…” (1 Thessalonians 4:15 KJB!)

Once I “studied & found the meaning,” have never had any problem since. Amen?
+
I would also, when Prayerfully/Carefully “studying, like to know," When "God Is
Addressing"
one person {singular: thee, thine, & thou}, or More than one person
{plural: ye/you/your}. Could make a Huge Difference in His Pure Words, correct?

Since newer versions have Totally Lost these distinctions, considering
“you/your” Could be Either singular OR plural, causing Confusion, of
which
God Is Not the author of,” (1 Corinthians 14:33 KJB!), correct,
Precious friend(s)?

Conclusion: Besides changing God’s PURE Words, is there not Also
HIS “Command NOT
to Add, Nor To Take Away From HIS Word!”?
(
Deuteronomy 4:2, 12:32; Proverbs 30:5-6; Revelation 22:18-19 KJB!)

So, yes, I sincerely believe This Is “A Very Serious And Important”
decision Of faith to be made! After all, "a corrupt {#} version Will
Cause a corrupt faith,” correct? Since God’s PURE Word Teaches:

...faith cometh by hearing, and hearing By The WORD Of God!”
(
Romans 10:17 KJB!)

Be Blessed!

{#} Corruption had Already Begun in "Paul's day," thus it should not
surprise us, that it very well Could be in our midst, today, correct?:

"For we are not as many, which corrupt The Word Of God: but as
of sincerity, but as of God, in The Sight Of God speak we in CHRIST."
(2 Corinthians 2:17 KJB!)

Precious friend(s), instead of All of the Mass Confusion, is not
God's Simple Will Much Better?

Here's your answer: Biblehub
https://biblehub.com/2_corinthians/2-17.htm
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,778
113
#94
By Gordon D. Fee. and Mark L Strauss.
Gordon Fee is not to be trusted. He promotes dynamic equivalence (a no-no) instead of a word-for-word translation (as in the the KJV, unless words in italics were necessary for clarity). Here is what Fee has to say:

"As Gordon Fee and Mark Strauss explain, “If the goal of translations is to reproduce the meaning of the text [which is false to begin with], then it follows that all translations involve interpretation.” Since every translation interposes a fallible human interpretation between the reader and an infallible text [which is also false], a translation can be a problem. However, the problem is solved when we seek to transfer meaning and not merely words from the original text to the receptor language. That’s the governing philosophy behind The Passion Translation: to transfer the essential meaning of God’s original message found in the biblical languages to modern English. We believe that the essential meaning of a passage should take priority over the literal form of the original words..."

When translators become interpreters then you have a very major problem. And what if Fee's interpretation is false and misleading? Or does Fee think he is the Pope and if always infallible in his "ex cathedra" interpretations?
 

GRACE_ambassador

Well-known member
Feb 22, 2021
3,242
1,642
113
Midwest
#95
Very interesting, and ironic, is it not?:

NIV: Unlike so many, we do not peddle the word of God for profit. On the contrary, in Christ we speak before God with sincerity, as those sent from God.

My understanding is that this version is the most popular in denominations today. Plus,
Rupert Murdoch is the owner of Zondervan Publishing who prints the NIV. He then receives
$1 from every sale, And he also owns a pornography Publishing establishment.

Should not these denominations be fighting this, instead of supporting it?

Just wondering...
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#96
Grace And Peace, Precious friend(s). I believe it is a very serious matter
to determine Which version of “the Bible” Is “The Correct Word Of God!”
Consider this example from Spanish to English:
¿Cómo te llamas? Literally it means "how do you call yourself"

But when translating no one says that. They say "What is your name?"

KJV does that from Greek to English all the time. Thousands of times.

The Greek and Hebrew can be like that. Look at an interlinear bible. Many times it makes no sense.
The KJV is not a literal translation. It is a formal/functional equivalent. It often adds words to transfer the meaning.

You must learn Hebrew and Greek to contend for the original words.

Contending for the words of the KJV as those that Paul wrote, as if he wrote in English would be a lie.

I know you don't mean that. So then you must think that the KJV scholars were divinely inspired as Paul was when he wrote it in Greek and that these KJV scholars could not make any mistakes as the Holy Spirit guided them.

If so, then you are saying that when they called lamp stands "candlesticks" in Revelation 1, which were not yet invented at the time Revelation was written, but were in common use in the middle ages and at the time of the KJV scholars that the Holy Spirit guided them to write candlesticks instead of lampstands. But the Holy Spirit did not. The Holy Spirit inspired John to write lychnias which means oil fed lampstands and not wax candlesticks.

John never saw a candlestick. He saw oil fed lamps and oil fed lampstands. Any English translation that translated the Greek word lychnias to lampstand is correct and the KJV which translated it to candlestick is wrong.

Now that does not mean that the KJV is wrong about everything it simply means that it is an English translation that sometimes is not as good as another translation where scholars have recognized that the word lychnias should be lampstand.

The KJV scholars might have decided on candlesticks because they thought the English readers would understand that better. But they should have kept the literal translation of lampstands and let the readers get an education as to what lampstands looked like in the first century and how they were fed with oil and not take it upon themselves to "modernize" the Greek word lychnias to candlesticks.
It would be the same as an English translation translating the world to "flashlights" or "torches' etc. That would probably get you upset if you saw that in an English translation and would be a reason why you would say that you can only trust in the KJV because the word should be candlestick not flashlights, but you would be wrong. The word should not be candlestick but lampstands an therefore the KJV is guilty of doing exactly what you are accusing other translations of doing "changing the original word" lychnias which should be oil fed lampstand to convey the meaning of what John saw.

You have to know the Greek and Hebrew to decide which English translation does the best job. Until you do, then your are relying on those that do and who have attempted to be faithful to the meaning of the Hebrew and Greek in these various English translations.

We want an easy answer. Pick one translation and say it is exactly what the Greek says but that is gross ignorance of how translating from one language to another works.

So what is the answer. A variety of English translations. My favorites are KJV, NASB, ESV, NIV, HCSB. Comparing these you are going to get close enough.

Eventually I will take three years of Greek and Hebrew and maybe I will read the copies of the manuscripts that we have in extant but if I never make it to that lofty goal I will rely on others who have. Reading books like How to Choose a Translation for all Its Worth.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,177
3,700
113
#97
I know you don't mean that. So then you must think that the KJV scholars were divinely inspired as Paul was when he wrote it in Greek and that these KJV scholars could not make any mistakes as the Holy Spirit guided them.
Are you saying a translation cannot be inspired?
 
S

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Guest
#98
Gordon Fee is not to be trusted. He promotes dynamic equivalence (a no-no) instead of a word-for-word translation (as in the the KJV, unless words in italics were necessary for clarity). Here is what Fee has to say:

"As Gordon Fee and Mark Strauss explain, “If the goal of translations is to reproduce the meaning of the text [which is false to begin with], then it follows that all translations involve interpretation.” Since every translation interposes a fallible human interpretation between the reader and an infallible text [which is also false], a translation can be a problem. However, the problem is solved when we seek to transfer meaning and not merely words from the original text to the receptor language. That’s the governing philosophy behind The Passion Translation: to transfer the essential meaning of God’s original message found in the biblical languages to modern English. We believe that the essential meaning of a passage should take priority over the literal form of the original words..."

When translators become interpreters then you have a very major problem. And what if Fee's interpretation is false and misleading? Or does Fee think he is the Pope and if always infallible in his "ex cathedra" interpretations?
There is no such thing as a word for word translation from Greek to English. The KJV is not a word for word translation. It would not make any sense. Have you ever seen an interlinear? Sometimes trying to get as close to the literal translation is not the best way to convey the Greek meaning. It could even translate into something that the Greek does not mean. There is so much ignorance on this topic and I usually pass it by but I try to help when I can. Gordon Fees How to Choose a Translation for all Its Worth is not a controversial book. It is used in many bible colleges of various denominations because the facts about translations don't change no matter what your doctrinal belief systems are.

English is English and translation from Greek to English and discussing how that that works and how the bible is translated would be the same book no matter who wrote it.

Of course we need to translate into English is such a way that it conveys the same meaning that the Greek says. That is a dynamic equivalent and saying it is a "no no" is gross ignorance on the subject and I can't endure it so I am out.
 
S

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Guest
#99
Are you saying a translation cannot be inspired?
I do not believe that a translation from the copies of the original Greek manuscripts into English by the KJV scholars was a miracle whereby the English text of the KJV became the new original manuscripts and replaced the Greek manuscripts. No I do not. And who would?
 
S

Scribe

Guest
Very interesting, and ironic, is it not?:

NIV: Unlike so many, we do not peddle the word of God for profit. On the contrary, in Christ we speak before God with sincerity, as those sent from God.

My understanding is that this version is the most popular in denominations today. Plus,
Rupert Murdoch is the owner of Zondervan Publishing who prints the NIV. He then receives
$1 from every sale, And he also owns a pornography Publishing establishment.

Should not these denominations be fighting this, instead of supporting it?

Just wondering...
I think you are very ignorant of the history of the NIV and who all endorses it. A huge number of modern scholars love it for it's faithfulness to the original languages. I used to not like it because I was so used to the KJV but the more I learn about the challenges of translation from Greek to English the more I appreciate the NIV.

It is not a black and white issue.