What does it "REALLY" mean that Jesus Christ is the Son of God?

We all know that when one ask the question, "Who is Jesus Christ" the inevitable answer will be, "He is the Son of God." Okay, but what does that really mean? Does it mean Jesus is the Son of God just like Christians are called and identified as the sons of God? No, Christians are "adopted" sons of God, we are not "THE" Son of God in an exclusive sense as pointed out at John 3:16.

The Jews have what is known as "idioms" just like all nationalities have idioms. One of the idioms they have is "the son of" idiom. For example in the Old Testament you will read various phrases like, "Sons of prophets," refer to men belogning to a prophetic band. (1 Kings 20:35). Sons of the goldsmiths refers to a goldsmith (Nehemiah 3:31). How about "Sons of affliction are afflicted ones. (Proverbs 31:8). Sons of valor, is simply a brave man. (1 Samuel 14:52.) There are literally thousands of these idioms throughout the Bible.

The idiom also demonstrates one posse3ssing a certain nature. The idiom, "son of man" clealy exhibits the use of the word "son" to show the possession of a certain nature. This is brought out at Numbers 23:19. "God is not a man that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent." The "son of man" idiom is used throughout the Bible. Ezekiel 2:1, 3:3,4, 10:4. Job 25:6, Psalm 8:4 and in the book of Daniel. Jesus Christ often referred to Himself as the "Son of Man" and as the "Son of God."

The idiom is also present in the New Testament. Sons of peace refers to a peaceful person. (Luke 10:6). Sons of Abraham are those like him in the exercise of faith. (Galatians 3:7). Son of perdition is the lost one. This refers to two persons, Judas and the antichrist. (John 17:12) (2 Thessalonians 2:3).

At this point I want to explain how all of this applys to Jesus Christ. But first let me say I am not going to explain the terms "Firstborn" or the term "Only Begotten," (although I could) as it pertains to Jesus Christ. I am not going to get into the weeds about explaining the Trinity either.

The most important question for me is the one that Jesus ask His disciples at Matthew 16:13, "Who do people say that the Son of Man is?" Notice what Peter says at vs16, "Thou are the Christ/Messiah, the Son of the living God." How did Peter know this? Verse 17, "Blessed are you, Simon Barjona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, BUT MY FATHER WHO IS IN HEAVEN."

Now, I'm going to address the argument from the "anti's" that the Jews misunderstood, or did not understand their own scriptures, or the reasons why they hated Him as it pertains to the claims of Jesus. Here's the question? Whether or not the Jews are correctly or incorrectly understood Jesus is NOT the isssue. The issue is "What was it that Jesus said that caused them to accuse Him of blasphemy resulting in His death/crucifixion?

John 5:17-18, "My Father is working until now, and I Myself am working." Vs18, "For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because (or why), He not only was breaking the Sabbath but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God." Jesus knew who He was even at an early age. Luke 2:48-49, When His mother and father were looking for Him He says at vs49, "Why is it that you were looking for Me. Did you not know that I had to be in MY FATHER'S HOUSE?"

John 8:56-59, "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad." The Jews said to Him, You are not yet fifty years old, and you have seen Abraham? vs58, Jesus said to them, Truly, truly, I say to you before Abraham was born (or sprang into exitence) I am." Vs59, "Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself, and went out of the temple."

John 10:30-37. "I and the Father are one." There is more to this verse than Jesus just saying He and the Father are one in purpose. Of course they are one in purpose otherwise there would be no reason for them to say at vs31, "The Jews took up stones AGAIN to stone Him." Jesus ask why are you stoning Me? Vs33, "The Jews answered Him, for a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out God." At verse 34-36 Jesus brings up Psalm 82:6, why?

Notice that it is Jesus who brings up the subject of God and not the subject of Him and the Father being one in purpose. At vs36 Jesus says, "do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, (Jesus was not a created being, He was sent into the world by God His Father). "You are blaspheming because I said, I AM THE SON OF GOD." So again, why did Jesus bring up Psalm 82:6?

At John 19:7 the Jews appeal to Pilate and Pilate says (vs6) "I find no guilt in Him" the Jews say, Vs7, We have a law, and by that law He ought to die because He make Himself OUT THE SON OF GOD." So again, if the Jews misunderstood Jesus why did they bring up the law at John 19:7? The law that Jesus supposedly broke is at Leviticus 24:16.

Now we come to the complete trial record at Matthew 26:57-68. I'm not going to quote all the verses but explain the main points. At vs59, "the chief priests and the whole Council kept trying to obtain FALSE testimony against Jesus, in order to PUT HIM TO DEATH." at vs63, the high priest Caiaphas says, " I adjure You (he wants Jesus to swear as to His identity), "I adjure you by the living God, that You tell us whether (Whether means in either case). So the high priest is asking the one person of Jesus Christ are You (1) the Christ/Messiah and (2) THE SON OF GOD."

In Luke's account Jesus says, "Yes, I am." Then at vs65 of Matthew 26:65, "Then the high priest tore his robes saying, "He has blasphemed! What further need do we have of witnesses? Behold, you have heard the blasphemy;" So, why would Jesus be accused of blasphemy for claiming to be the Son of God since the Jews themselves claim to be sons of God? It is not blasphemous offense to claim to be the "Messiah/Christ. In fact all through history people have come along claiming to be the Messiah even including today and none of them have been put to death for making the claim.

In summing up, please read what the Apostle John's authorial intent was at John 20:30-31 right after Thomas made his declaration to Jesus Christ that He/Jesus was his "Lord and God." "Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; vs31, but these have been written that you may beleive that JESUS IS THE CHRIST, THE SON OF GOD; and that believing you may have life in his name."

So we went full circle from Jesus asking, "Who do people say that I am" and Peter saying, "Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God" to the conclusion by the Apostle John that "you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, The Son of God." To me, it's "inconceivable" that Jesus Christ is "a son of God" just like the rest of us.

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto

What does it "REALLY" mean that Jesus Christ is the Son of God?

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The answer is found in Psalm 2.

PSALM 2: CHRIST IS THE KING/MESSIAH, THE SON OF GOD FROM ETERNITY
1 Why do the heathen rage, and the people imagine a vain thing?
2 The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the LORD [God the Father], and against His anointed [the Messiah Christ], saying,
3 Let us break their bands asunder, and cast away their cords from us.
4 He that sitteth in the heavens shall laugh: the Lord shall have them in derision.
5 Then shall He speak unto them in his wrath, and vex them in his sore displeasure.
6 Yet have I set my King [Christ] upon my holy hill of Zion.
7 I [Christ] will declare the decree: the LORD [God the Father] hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. [Note: this "begetting" is a special Father-Son relationship which was from eternity past]
8 Ask of me, and I shall give thee the heathen for thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession.
9 Thou shalt break them with a rod of iron; thou shalt dash them in pieces like a potter's vessel.
10 Be wise now therefore, O ye kings: be instructed, ye judges of the earth.
11 Serve the LORD with fear, and rejoice with trembling.
12 Kiss the Son, lest He be angry, and ye perish from the way, when His wrath is kindled but a little. Blessed are all they that put their trust in Him.

Verse 7 is quoted in Acts 13:33 and Hebrews 1:5.

So what exactly does "the Son of God" mean?

1. The Son of God is also the eternal Word of God (John 1:1).
2. The Son of God is the UNIQUELY BEGOTTEN Son of God (John 1:18). This is the eternal Father-Son relationship within the Godhead, since the Son is also God (Heb 1:8,9).
3. The Son of God is therefore God the Son (the second person of the Trinity).
4. The Son of God is the King/Messiah of Israel (as seen above).
5. The Son of God is also the King of kings and Lord of lords, who will rule the nations with a rod of iron after His Second Coming (Rev 19).
6. The Son of God is also the Son of Man (as Jesus preferred to call Himself), and as Daniel revealed to the Jews.
7. The Son of God will unleash the wrath of God at His Second coming. Therefore it is called "the wrath of the Lamb" (v 12 see Rev 6).

I have to agree that though we are called "THE" sons of God, we Christians cannot claim this title like our Lord can. Let us briefly look at the ORIGIN of both parties. But to shorten the research, I am starting with the PURPOSE that God had in creating MAN. I do this because we can open up John and discuss the Tri-une God without end. So my posting will take as its leading verse, Romans 8:29. It reads;

"For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren."

And to anchor this limitation, I include Genesis 1:11-12 coupled with John 12:24. The reason for this is that in the first we see God set forth an immutable Law that everything with seed in it will bring forth the same KIND. And in the second we see us coming forth from one seed - Jesus. This makes us Christians the same KIND as Jesus:

11 "And God said, Let the earth bring forth grass, the herb yielding seed, and the fruit tree yielding fruit after his kind, whose seed is in itself, upon the earth: and it was so.
12 And the earth brought forth grass, and herb yielding seed after his kind, and the tree yielding fruit, whose seed was in itself, after his kind: and God saw that it was good.

24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except a corn of wheat fall into the ground and die, it abideth alone: but if it die, it bringeth forth much fruit."

Now, notwithstanding our Lord Jesus' incarnation by the Holy Spirit, which we do not partake of, and notwithstanding our Lord's Deity, which we do not partake of, our Lord Jesus allowed Himself to "PARTAKE" of the full human experience from insemination to resurrection. In that He was born of the Holy Spirit (Matt.1:18; Lk.1:35), puts Him in another league to us who were born from the womb via a human father. But the REBIRTH of John Chapter 3 changes our status dramatically. Whereas Jesus is of the Father from the womb, we are of the Father long after we came out of the womb. But does that make the END RESULT different? I think not.

Our Lord Jesus, claiming Deity from birth, NEVER called Himself Son of God except to admit it before accusers. And added to this, although Colossians 1:15 informs us that He was the "Firstborn of all creation", three verses later, in verse 18, we are informed that He is also "The Firstborn from the dead". These are both a Status that can never be removed from Him, but which is the status needed to achieve God's purpose? It is the second. The Old Creation, glorious as it may be, has been scarred by rebellion and sin. Our Lord Jesus puts the OLD away by:

1. Letting Adam die
2. Allowing Himself to be Baptized
3. Allowing Himself to be killed
4. Declaring the old to be unfit for God's plan
5. Raising up a New Man from men
6. Declaring that the New Man would display God in the "AGES" (plural) to come

That is, God's plan has not changed but it is now realized in the "second" and "last" Adam (1st Cor,14:45-47). Thus, God's up-to-date plan revolves around the Man Jesus AFTER resurrection. And in this aspect, as John 12:24 above says, the death and resurrection of Jesus brings forth the same KIND. IN OUR REBIRTH WE PARTAKE AS MUCH OF THE DIVINE NATURE AS OUR LORD JESUS (2nd Pet.1:4). Thus, by the REBIRTH of John 3, we are a NEW CREATURE and TRUE SONS OF GOD BY BIRTH as John 1:12-13 says.

But the fact of adoption in Romans 8:15, 8:23 Galatians 4:5 and Ephesians 1:5 is not to be overlooked. God's purpose in Genesis 1:26-28 holds two crucial things. (I) man in the image and likeness of God, and (II) man subduing and ruling the earth. To fulfill point (I), that is, to be in the LIKENESS of God we must intrinsically possess His NATURE. But to be eligible for point (II), that is, to INHERIT the earth, sea and sky, we must have a LEGAL CONNECTION to God. Our Lord Jesus is the Prime Example. In Luke's gospel, our Lord Jesus is traced to David, not via Solomon, but via Nathan. That is why He is called "the Branch" and it makes Him BLOOD HEIR of the throne of Israel VIA MARY. In Matthew's genealogy, our Lord Jesus is traced to JOSEPH who was "SUPPOSED" to be His father. But Joseph was not the blood father of Jesus. Three kings in His line via Solomon are cursed and bring forth no line for Jesus. Joseph makes Jesus King of the Jews and HEIR to the throne BY ADOPTION. ADOPTION is a legal standing to be "PLACED" as a son (the meaning of the Greek word).

Now, the Promise that those IN Christ would INHERIT the WHOLE WORLD is given to Abraham while he is of the OLD CREATION. And Jesus, that "Seed" of Abraham, is born of the "seed" while in the Old Creation. So, although it is covered BOTH ways, all that is necessary for us Christians to INHERIT the earth is LEGAL STANDING. Unlike the purpose of being LIKE God, which needs His NATURE, the purpose of INHERITING only needs ADOPTION. But we are, in the end, BOTH.

1. We are FULLY sons of God by birth and do possess His nature
2. We are FULLY sons of God by adoption and will INHERIT the earth
3. We are FULLY like Christ the Man in resurrection, but do not possess His inherent and eternal GodHead

I have mentioned His Deity and Godhead only in passing. I have emphasized His mingled human nature and divine nature because that is my comment on the OP, but we cannot divirce the two themes. It needed to be said to balance the argument. But my intention is not to discuss the Triune God. Please forgive me if I do not reply to any of my esteemed brethren who would like to take up this point. It is my considered opinion that the explanation of the Triune God is unfathomable to the limited intellect of men. It is true, and we can categorically state its truths, but it breaks the boundaries of human explanation. It is your freedom to post what you like, but I hope you'll respect my freedom to answer what I like.

Thanks and God bless.