Exposing!! The Corrupt Counterfeit (NIV) Bible, Verses That Have Been Tamped With!!

The greek is our closest template.
Our oldest and most accurate.
The hound dogs of study use it as a baseline.

A good example is rev 20.
I always wondered where people got the notion of a resurrection after the second coming.
Niv planted that nothing burger in folks heads.
Now remember there is a curse for changing revelation

Lucifer is a Latin word inserted into Jerome‘s Latin Vulgate and was not in the OT Hebrew writings.
Easter in lieu of Pascha.

Yes.

What or who is the morning star in Isaiah 14?

Hi Absolutely,


I agree that by using ancient Greek texts we can come very close to what the apostles and Prophets originally wrote.


Some of our Christian Brothers, though, feel that the KJV is actually more accurate than any extant ancient Greek text.


The KJV is certainly a good translation, especially if one grew up with it and has verses memorized that way.


Myself I like to use a variety of translations as well as the original languages.

There’s more to living the Christian life after salvation. We must move towards maturity through the reading and studying of scripture.

King of Babylon.

If you really want pure truth, then for the Tanakh, get yourself a Hebrew text because 80% of all English versions are completely off.

What or who is the morning star in Isaiah 14?

True, and perhaps most importantly by praying, asking God to guide us with His Spirit. That’s what our brethren did prior to the written texts.

@WithinReason

Hi WithinReason,

I see that you put a red x on my post #236.

If you wish to say what the test is that shows that a translation is the word of God, I invite you to do so!

Yes, and illiterate Christians continue to do today!

Jesus. Lucifer, was once a "son of" that bright and "Morning Star" Jesus:


The Latin leaves out "son (of)".

Here’s Verse comparisons between the (KJV) bible and the faulty (NIV) bible.


(KJV)
Matthew 17:21
However, this kind does not
go out except by prayer
and fasting.

(NIV)
Matthew 17:21
ooopppss!! Zilch!! Whole verse
missing, why???

Here we see an entire verse missing from the NIV, why would you remove an entire verse out of the bible?
Perhaps the writers are trying 2 hide something? Looks very suspicious 2 me!! Bible says in deu 4:2 you
shall not add nor detract from the word of God.

(KJV)
Mark 9:29
And he said unto them, This kind
can come forth by nothing, but
by prayer and fasting.

(NIV)
Mark 9:29
He replied, “This kind can come out only by prayer.

Now this is the time in the bible where the apostles in the bible couldnt cast a demon out of a child
and then jesus came and cast it out of the child and the apostles then said 2 him how come we couldnt
cast the demon out of the child and he said 2 them dis kind comes out by prayer and (fasting). Now in
the (KJV) it also says prayer and (fasting) but in the (NIV) it says prayer only, why is dis?

If you look at all through out history monks, preists and other types of religious people would fast
mortify their flesh and 2 strenghen themselves spirituly so that it wud be easyer for them 2 open
themselves up 2 the spiritual relm and 2 communicate with God more effectivly without any interference
from any demonic forces then a person can perceive Gods word better.

When we fast we de-clutter our bodies and detoxify ourselves and drain away impurities from our systems
which hence frees up our minds and also allows the holy spirit 2 move through us more easily.

Fasting is quite a big part of christianity and walking in the spirit and also quite a big part of
deliverence ministry, jesus also said we must deny our flesh, Matthew 16:24 so why has the (NIV)
taken this out of the verse? its quite an important element. it raises alot of questions?

(KJV)
Romans 8:1
There is therefore now no condemnation to
them which are in Christ Jesus, (who walk
not after the flesh, but after the Spirit).

(NIV)
Romans 8:1
Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those
who are in Christ Jesus,

See the difference? wheres the 2nd part of the verse in the (NIV) version? Well lets look at the 1st
part. (There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus). what does it mean
2 be in christ? does it mean 2 believe in him? well even the demons believe and tremble james 2:19.
does it mean 2 follow christ? well 2 follow jesus is 2 deny urself and take up ur cross stated again
in Matthew 16:24. or does it mean 2 walk as christ walked?

well the bible clearly shows that jesus walked in the spirit. Romans 8:8 Those controlled by the
flesh cannot please God. and we know that jesus pleased the father Matthew 17:5 "This is my beloved
Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him".and john 8:29 the father have not left me alone coz
i always do the things dat please him.

therefore we can conclude dat being in christ is 2 be in the spirit as he was, we must worship God
in spirit and in truth john 4:24 also pauls main enphesis through out the NT is to be born again
(circumcised in the heart) and 2 be in the spirit!! gal 5:16.

alot of people are being misslead by a tampering of the word and think their ok with God as long
as they just believe in christ without any form of repentence which is very evident in ur
avarage (so called christian) 2day! hence leaving dem with the idea dat they can also (sin) but
call on jesus and its ok! its because of deception like dis dat many people are dammed and on their
way 2 hell unfortunetly Matthew 7:13

(KJV)
Romans 10:17
So then faith cometh by hearing, and
hearing by the word of God

(NIV)
Romans 10:17
Consequently, faith comes from hearing the message,
and the message is heard through the word about Christ.

here we have 2 completley different paragraphs."faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God"
how does a person get saved? dont they have 2 hear the word!! and wat is the bible? isnt it Gods word?
and isnt jesus christ the word dat became flesh? so dat would make the bible all about christ!! so
why does the (NIV) say " hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word about Christ".

so wats dis so called message dat the (NIV) is talking about? i cant find it, i mean there are tones
of messages in the bible anyway, some of dem are prophecys of jesus christ!! some are parables and
some are just some other prophetic talk.

Anyway faith doesnt come by "hearing the message" faith comes by hearing the gospel which is the
(good news) and the whole word of God which is the bible. so once again another twisting of the
scriptures again!!

I personally don't stick to just one translation, but compare specific verses in parallel with all of the major translations.

LOL No way Hosea. You should do better research before you post. The verses you used to prove your point were spoken by God after God had led them through the desert for forty years.
Deu 29:1 These are the words of the covenant, which the LORD commanded Moses to make with the children of Israel in the land of Moab, beside the covenant which he made with them in Horeb.
Deu 29:2 And Moses called unto all Israel, and said unto them, Ye have seen all that the LORD did before your eyes in the land of Egypt unto Pharaoh, and unto all his servants, and unto all his land;
Deu 29:3 The great temptations which thine eyes have seen, the signs, and those great miracles:
Deu 29:4 Yet the LORD hath not given you an heart to perceive, and eyes to see, and ears to hear, unto this day.
Deu 29:5 And I have led you forty years in the wilderness: your clothes are not waxen old upon you, and thy shoe is not waxen old upon thy foot.
God informed Moses that He was going to break His promise to them about crossing over Jordan before they were in the desert for forty years.
Num 14:34 After the number of the days in which ye searched the land, even forty days, each day for a year, shall ye bear your iniquities, even forty years, and ye shall know my breach of promise.
You need to remember that every Israelite who was alive when God spoke to Moses and told him that He was going to break His promise was before they walked in the desert for forty years, were all dead by the time Deu. 28:15-20 was spoken to Moses. Except of course for Joshua and Caleb.
All of Deu. 28 was the new covenant spoken to an entirely new generation who were not alive or very young when God spoke Num. 14:34 to Moses. It was a New Covenant spoken to a New Generation of Israelites who never heard the first covenant.
Though you are correct in one aspect. God did keep the promise to punish the Iraelites for their disobedience but broke His promise to lead them to a land of milk and honey.

I didn't call God a promise breaker, His word did. The words "Breach Of Promise" are no different the the words "Breach of Contract".
A contract is made when a promise is made by two parties to each other and when that contract is breached by one or the other parties that promise is broken and today if there is good reason to break that promise legally the contract can be broken. The same applies to God by His own words which show that God had good reason to break His promise.
Num 14:34 After the number of the days in which ye searched the land, even forty days, each day for a year, SHALL YE BEAR YOUR INIQUITIES, even forty years, and ye shall know my breach of promise.
I don't need to re-examine my beliefs because scriptures says what it says. I didn't write the book. I am just the paperboy. I deliver the Word in all of it's Glory.

catholics

There are Hebrew interlinears to run down the words for study.
There are some differences,but most of the kjv is spot on.

Hello I hope all is well.

The English language is about 1/3 of the size of the original Biblical Hebrew text. This is not to say you cannot learn from English, but Hebrew outdates English for thousands of years. I know Hebrew quite well and the nature of the English language quite simply cannot grasp the complexity of the Hebrew language. Example: the word "D'var" (דבר) means "thing", "word", "spoke", "plague" and more. So question, if I translate it does it only mean one thing or can it mean all 4 and if all 4 then I can understand the text 4 ways. Each let has numerical values and they can also deepen the level of the text. This is why Jesus was so keen on staying "Not one jot or tittle shall pass from the Law/Torah". Why? Because in Judaism, the Torah commands that if even if one letter is incorrect, the entire Torah is invalid! Why? Because these are words of God. Word God spoke. It is not a book that man created. Its power is incredible and its wisdom is beyond words. Why do you think the Catholics made a statute of Moses with horns? Because the same word for horns in hebrew means glory too. Why do you think the name of "Jesus" or "Yeshua" is so powerful to heal? It's not magic, the letters of His name are not arbitrary like other languages. The formation of his name is beyond our understanding.

When it comes to the NT. The Ancient Greek is great and much better than the English or Latin, but even more so, once you translate the text, you then must understand the Jewish/Hebrew idioms Jesus or the Disciples are speaking. Example Acts 1:12 "Then they returned a Sabbath walk distance". What on earth is that? Why waste ink on something so "useless"? Or Laying hands. Why is laying hands to important? Why did the High Priest lay hands on the Goat during the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur) and why only lay hands when someone is given leadership?

King Solomon alludes to the wisdom in the Bible throughout all his books and Jesus reiterates Moses, "Man shall not live on bread alone but every word that comes out of the Lord".