I know you were addressing Ahwatukee primarily... but one thing I've pointed out in the past is that wherever the phrase "the day of the Lord" is used in the same contexts as the phrase "IN THAT DAY," they refer to the same time period.
When viewing this, one can ascertain that this is not speaking of merely "a singular 24-hr day," but a very LONG time period of MUCH duration, with much transpiring within it.
It is insufficient to just look at one verse and compare it to another "such-like" verse, and conclude that they is the extent of what it entails or consists (while disregarding the remainder of the surrounding contexts and this RELATED phrase [when used in the same contexts] of "IN THAT DAY"--see Zech14's use [for example] of BOTH of these phrases to see it speaking of a TIME PERIOD of MUCH DURATION).
The same is true of the 2Th1 & 2 [both chpts'] CONTEXT, where these phrases are used ALONGSIDE each other [meaning, in the SAME CONTEXT] to refer to the same future time period (of some DURATION which PRECEDES His "RETURN" to the earth to "wipe out" the man of sin [at trib's END point--this is not the EXTENT of "the Day of the Lord," though... and this is what we see Scripture to be showing: the day of the Lord will ARRIVE at the same point in time that the man of sin will also ARRIVE [this being at the START of the 7-yr trib, not its MIDDLE, nor at its END!]).
Matt24:29 is another point-in-time which is ALSO INCLUDED in the very long period of time known as "the Day of the Lord" (it does not consist solely of THIS point in time alone, but some time before this and much time following this... As I had mentioned, its proper definition [if you will] is "a period of time [not merely of 24-hrs in length] of JUDGMENTs followed by a period of time [also not merely of 24-hrs in length] of BLESSINGs"<---ALL that TOGETHER is "the DOTL" TIME PERIOD. It will ARRIVE at a certain point in time [same time as the ARRIVAL of "the man of sin... in his time"])
2Th2:3 - "that day [the DOTL (earthly TIME PERIOD) from verse 2, the immediately preceding verse's Subject!] will not be present, if not shall have come THE DEPARTURE *FIRST* AND the man of sin be revealed..."
...when he's revealed, the DOTL will ALSO "be present"
When viewing this, one can ascertain that this is not speaking of merely "a singular 24-hr day," but a very LONG time period of MUCH duration, with much transpiring within it.
It is insufficient to just look at one verse and compare it to another "such-like" verse, and conclude that they is the extent of what it entails or consists (while disregarding the remainder of the surrounding contexts and this RELATED phrase [when used in the same contexts] of "IN THAT DAY"--see Zech14's use [for example] of BOTH of these phrases to see it speaking of a TIME PERIOD of MUCH DURATION).
The same is true of the 2Th1 & 2 [both chpts'] CONTEXT, where these phrases are used ALONGSIDE each other [meaning, in the SAME CONTEXT] to refer to the same future time period (of some DURATION which PRECEDES His "RETURN" to the earth to "wipe out" the man of sin [at trib's END point--this is not the EXTENT of "the Day of the Lord," though... and this is what we see Scripture to be showing: the day of the Lord will ARRIVE at the same point in time that the man of sin will also ARRIVE [this being at the START of the 7-yr trib, not its MIDDLE, nor at its END!]).
Matt24:29 is another point-in-time which is ALSO INCLUDED in the very long period of time known as "the Day of the Lord" (it does not consist solely of THIS point in time alone, but some time before this and much time following this... As I had mentioned, its proper definition [if you will] is "a period of time [not merely of 24-hrs in length] of JUDGMENTs followed by a period of time [also not merely of 24-hrs in length] of BLESSINGs"<---ALL that TOGETHER is "the DOTL" TIME PERIOD. It will ARRIVE at a certain point in time [same time as the ARRIVAL of "the man of sin... in his time"])
2Th2:3 - "that day [the DOTL (earthly TIME PERIOD) from verse 2, the immediately preceding verse's Subject!] will not be present, if not shall have come THE DEPARTURE *FIRST* AND the man of sin be revealed..."
...when he's revealed, the DOTL will ALSO "be present"
The term'' Day of the Lord'' has a distinct meaning and in each case you cite that meaning in context is obvious to anyone. Zechariah is talking about God coming in judgement he starts by speaking of God setting his feet on the mount of Olives and doing battle with the nations surrounding Jerusalem which according to Revelation centres on Armageddon. He then continues to describe conditions
after this. Those conditions are still future
The same can be said for Paul in both chapters 1 and 2 of Thessalonians. In Thessalonians Paul speaks of Christ coming in flaming fire inflicting vengeance on those who do not know God (2 Thess 1:8) In 2 Thess:2 he speaks of Christ destroying the man of lawlessness by his appearance and his coming.
I would be interested to know what translation you used when citing ''departure'' and what form of departure you have in mind.
Youngs Literal Translation has it as falling away
The KJV also has falling away
The NIV has rebellion
The RSV also has rebellion
The ESV has turning away from God
I only ask because 'departure is a little ambiguous Departure from what who or where? Could it be that you have mistaken this to
mean Departure as in Pre Trib Rapture? just asking
Finally there is no direct reference to a Pre Tribulation arrival of Christ to resurrect and rapture believers either in Pauls
writings or anywhere else.