Why Wasn't A Law Given By Which One Could Be Righteous?

sadly the nation rebelled and that was never established,

Did they do this only after the covenant and its law or before?

Righteousness could be attained under the law by being blameless in walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord, but this was self righteousness not God’s righteousness. God’s righteousness is by the faith of Jesus Christ.

They rebelled before. When it was given however they at first embraced it. They fell really after David’s reign and never really recovered

Philippians 3:4 - though I also might have confidence in the flesh. If anyone else thinks he may have confidence in the flesh, I more so: 5 circumcised the eighth day, of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of the Hebrews; concerning the law, a Pharisee; 6 concerning zeal, persecuting the church; concerning the righteousness which is in the law, blameless. 7 But what things were gain to me, these I have counted loss for Christ. 8 Yet indeed I also count all things loss for the excellence of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord, for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and count them as rubbish, that I may gain Christ 9 and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith.

Romans 10
1 Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might be saved.
2 For I bear them record that they have a zeal of God, but not according to knowledge.
3 For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God.
4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

So is it fair to say He gave a law designed for a rebellious people, to a rebellious people?

The doctrine I choose to hold about this question, "Why did God had to wait 4000 years, from Adam to the book of Malachi, for Jesus to come in the flesh?" is this:

It was a man—a physical human being—who had been given authority on the earth by God. When man allowed himself to be deceived and when he yielded his power to Satan, he became, in a sense, joint-heirs with the devil. Satan has to work through a human being. Man, through his physical body, gave Satan authority on this earth.

Therefore, it was necessary for a man with a physical body to take back that authority. God had to become man, to give Him the authority to execute judgment on the earth: “And hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man” (John 5:27). God cannot break or change His word, so He was restricted to act within the word He had already spoken.

But why did it take 4,000 years? Here is the logic: When God created the first man, He said, “Let us make man in our image” (Gen. 1:26). He literally spoke Adam’s body into existence. At that time, He had the legal right to do that because He had not yet given authority over this earth to man.

However, once He had given that authority to man, He could not leave him out of the equation. The last Adam, Jesus, would still have to be spoken into existence by God, but He would have to speak through man. God was no longer in direct control, and a man would have to become the voice of His words. Psalm 115:16 explains—

The heaven, even the heavens, are the Lord’s: but the earth hath he given to the children of men.

That is a strong statement. In other words, everything outside of the earth belongs to God, but the earth He gave to the children of man. God literally placed restrictions on Himself through His own words. He had to work through people, and there were very few people sensitive enough to hear Him in their hearts and then prophesy what they heard.

God had to create the new Adam through words spoken by someone with a physical body. Galatians 4:4 says, “But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son.” If you study that out, it means at the appropriate moment. Until then, all the prophetic utterances hadn’t been spoken. Jesus could not come onto the scene until everything that had to be said was said.

Hebrews 1:1-2 In the past YAH spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days He has spoken to us by His Son, Whom He appointed Heir of all things, and through Whom also He made the universe.


Hebrews 2:5-10 For He didn't subject the world to come, whereof we speak, to angels. But One has somewhere testified, saying, "What is man, that You think of him? Or the son of man, that You care for him? You made him a little lower than the angels; You crowned him with glory and honor. You have put all things in subjection under his feet." For in that He subjected all things to him, He left nothing that is not subject to him. But now we don't see all things subjected to him, yet. But we see Him who has been made a little lower than the angels, Yeshua, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that by the grace of YAH He should taste of death for everyone. For it became Him, for Whom are all things, and through Whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to make the Author of their salvation perfect through sufferings.

how does this scripture add on to what was stated?

I thought what you said was good. These Scriptures from Hebrews explain it. He was entering His creation as a Man and for our Salvation. All things will be subject to Him. He is the Heir. He defeated death and evil. He is the Eternal Word.

Things you pointed out. Thank you

The law was Yahshua's path to life.

He said He had a commandment from His Father that if He laid down His life He would be raised up again.

"The Law" - the Torah, the books of Moses, the law of Moses, the Sinai Covenant, etc
i think we all know what this refers to. no, it's not just the 10 commandments. don't be silly. ((James 2:9-10))


we know that righteousness cannot be attained through the law, neither can life:
a law was given, but it was not one through which righteousness could come, and not one that could give life.
this is puzzling - because the law itself says 'the one who does these things will live by them' ((Leviticus 18:5, Romans 10:5, Galatians 3:12)) - yet by these things, i.e. Torah, no one receives life ((Galatians 2:16, Romans 3:20, Galatians 3:11 etc)).
still, it was given by God, and it is perfect. it was given by God to a specific people at a specific time. ((for more info, read Exodus & Deuteronomy etc))
why? how is this perfect -- how is a law that cannot produce righteousness and cannot give life, the absolute perfect law to be given to this people at this time?

we know too, 'by the law is the knowledge of sin' ((Romans 3:20, 7:7-9 etc)) and 'the law was a schoolmaster' to bring people to Christ ((Galatians 3:24)). so we know some things about the purpose of the law. and we know, 'the letter kills but the Spirit gives life' ((2 Corinthians 3:6)) -- in fact He has made us ministers of a new covenant, 'built on better promises' ((Hebrews 8:6)) -- and the first is 'made obsolete' ((Hebrews 8:13)).

so here is my question ((yay! a question!)), phrased in the form of a few questions, but really it is all one question:

why wasn't the spiritual law given in the first place?
why a Torah of ordinances & statutes & commandments called a 'ministry of death' ((2 Corinthians 3:7)) to go before?
why a law which makes everyone who relies it, under a curse? ((Deuteronomy 27:26, Galatians 3:10))
why require the blood of bulls and goats when it can never take away sin?
why command physical circumcision if it means nothing, but only the circumcision done without human hands is effectual?
why did God give The Law which 'is not of faith' ((Galatians 3:12)) instead of giving faith?
why did grace & truth wait over a thousand years after Moses to come through Jesus Christ ((John 1:17))?

Jesus is the life. He doesn't need a 'pathway to it' the pathway leads to Him
((re: John 14:6, Galatians 3:24))

the law does not impart life.
((re: Galatians 3:21))