"how that Christ died for our sins"

In case it isn't clear, I'm basically asking what it means that Christ died for our sins.

In case it isn't clear, I'm basically asking what it means that Christ died for our sins.

1 Corinthians 15:3 - For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

What do these words mean?

In case it isn't clear, I'm basically asking what it means that Christ died for our sins.

1 Corinthians 15:3 - For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;

What do these words mean?

You can understand it another way by contrasting it to what Peter was preaching to the Jews

In fact, not only did Peter not preach the divine exchange aspect of Jesus’s cruxifiction on the cross, one constant theme he hammered to his Jewish listeners was that they were responsible for crucifying Jesus.

Examples were Acts 2:36, where Peter says, "... Jesus, whom ye crucified ...." Peter also says in Acts 3:14-15, "But ye denied the Holy One ... and killed the Prince of life ...." Then in Acts 5:30 he says, "... Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree."

Finally Stephen, who also preached Peter's gospel, told the Jews in Acts 7:52, "Which of the prophets have not your fathers persecuted? and they have slain them which shewed before of the coming of the Just One; of whom ye have been now the betrayers and murderers ...."

In case it isn't clear, I'm basically asking what it means that Christ died for our sins.

Peter also expressed that the Jews killed Jesus when he preached to the Gentiles (Ac 10:39).

Yes, that reinforced my point that Peter's preaching in Acts involve Jesus death as a murder indictment.

He had no understanding of 1 Cor 15:1-4, until nearing his death, when he wrote 1 and 2 Peter.

Do you mean specifically the part about Christ dying for our sins? If so, how do you think Peter understood what Jesus said to him when speaking about giving his life as a ransom for many? (Mt 20:28; Mk 10:45)

But Peter rebuked Jesus privately for telling them he had to die.

It is also clear from Acts 3:18-19, that Peter understood that the Messiah had to suffer for our sins to be wiped out.

Actually, you are reading that into the bible there so its far from clear. Just because the word repent appears in Peter's sermon in Acts 3:18-19, does not mean the same as what Paul meant in 1 Cor 15:1-4.

Peter is accusing the Jews of murdering Jesus. The idea of repentance for them can be viewed from the parable of the tenants, told in all 3 synoptic gospels. (Matthew 21:33-46; Mark 12:1-12; Luke 20:9-19)

When Jesus and the 12 were preaching from Matt-John, they need to repent of rejecting God their Father in the OT, and believe in his Son is their promised King and Messiah, as foretold by their prophets. The Jewish nation had rejected and killed many of those prophets.

God had mercy on them and now decided to send his Son to them now. But as Jesus told them in the parable of the tenants, they were wicked and decided to slay the son instead, thinking they can then take control of the vineyard. The words they told Pilate was really horrific from this perspective

Matthew 27:25 Then answered all the people, and said, His blood be on us, and on our children.

When Jesus was on the cross, he asked his father to forgive them for this act, because they know not what they do, the Father agreed to Jesus request.

So when Peter urged his Jewish brothers at Pentecost to repent (Acts 2:38), they are to repent from their horrific act of murdering the Son of God, and accept him once again as the Son of God and their King, since Jesus's resurrection showed, as Peter stated, he is indeed the Messiah and the Son of God. (Acts 2:36)

But of course the Nation did not, only a remnant of them did, so God blinded the nation temporary, setting his secret plan in motion to save us Gentiles, independent of Israel.

Peter, unlike what so many believe, did not preach to the Jews that Jesus died for their sins and rose again as a sign that all their sins are forever put away, which is 1 Cor 15:1-4

I see nothing in 1Co 15:1-4 that states that Jesus' death and resurrection is "a sign that all their sins are forever put away." What translation are you referencing?

In Ac 2:38 sin is not singular it is plural, as it is in Ac 3:19. Their need for repentance went far beyond their part in murdering the Son of God.

I have already stated using the parable of tenants that the Jews have been rejecting God since the OT, the murdering of the Son was thus the finale.

As for your first paragraph, this is not a debate on OSAS so let's not go into that. The point is still Peter was not preaching 1 Cor 15:1-4.

What part of this are you claiming that Peter did not preach until nearing the end of his life?

1Co 15:1-4 (ESV). [1] Now I would remind you, brothers, of the gospel I preached to you, which you received, in which you stand, [2] and by which you are being saved, if you hold fast to the word I preached to you—unless you believed in vain. [3] For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures, [4] that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day in accordance with the Scriptures

Peter used Christ death as a murder indictment for the Jews and his resurrection as proof that he was indeed the Son of God and their promised Messiah.

That is not what 1 Cor 15:1-4 is saying.

Are you saying that Paul didn't preach Christ's death as a murder indictment, or that he didn't preach Christ's resurrection as proof that he was indeed the Son of God and the promised Messiah?