What is your definition of free will?
Does mankind, whom the Bible says is "under sin" (meaning under the power of sin), and slaves to sin, have autonomous, libertarian free will?
No, he does not. He is a slave to sin, and that is not freedom. His nature has been corrupted by virtue of being in Adam.
Yet, he is still responsible for his sinfulness and will be punished eternally for it, outside of Christ.
I provided the example of a fish in a pond. The fish can swim around in the pond all he wants, but he is not free to live on land. That is because he is a fish by nature, and lives in water. Same with the fallen man. His nature is corrupted, and he cannot make godly choices until his nature is changed. His life revolves around life in the kingdom of darkness; he does not dwell in the kingdom of light. His world does not have God as the center of his existence.
Within the kingdom of darkness, there are individuals who practice greater civic virtue, but none are righteous and do good.
Read Romans 1-3...in fact, read the whole book of Romans
By the way, God can rightly condemn all mankind, simply because of Adam's sin, and Romans 5 says that all are condemned by Adam's sin.
Of course, that doesn't please free-willers as they will scream "that isn't fair"...but that's what the Bible says. Just like believers are identified with Christ and his righteousness, all of mankind in Adam is identified with Adam and his sin. It isn't fair that the believer benefits from Jesus and his righteousness, but I don't think too many (other than Pelagians) have an issue with that.