Is unconditional election biblical?

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Is unconditional election biblical?

  • Yes, unconditional election is biblical.

    Votes: 23 43.4%
  • No , unconditional election is not biblical.

    Votes: 27 50.9%
  • I don't know.

    Votes: 3 5.7%

  • Total voters
    53

Melach

Well-known member
Mar 28, 2019
2,057
1,526
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God is not the Author of sin.

Yet sin exists.

Because of Gods Passive Will it exists.

Gods Active Will only creates that which is Good.

Gods Passive Will allows things that are seemingly against (for the time being) His Active Will.


That's my understanding.
:cool: passive will active will. ok
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
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That’s all well and good, but what verses can you posit that will change my mind? If you got them, post them, and I will gladly study them over.

The most atrocious act know to mankind, God was active in. He wasn’t passive in it at all.
Its hard to explain because God uses EVERYTHING to His Good Purpose.

And yet scripture says God is NOT the Author of sin.


James 1:13-17
13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:
14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
16 Do not err, my beloved brethren.
17 Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and cometh down from the Father of lights, with whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning.
 
Oct 25, 2018
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Its hard to explain because God uses EVERYTHING to His Good Purpose.

And yet scripture says God is NOT the Author of sin.


James 1:13-17
13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:
14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
16 Do not err, my beloved brethren.
17 Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and cometh down from the Father of lights, with whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning.
But again, God was active in the most atrocious act known to mankind. He wasn’t passive in it. He actively stirred up Kings Pul and Tilgath-Pilneser to attack Israel in 1 Chron. 5:26. He was active in stirring up the Assyrians when they attacked Israel in Isaiah 10, too.
 

Melach

Well-known member
Mar 28, 2019
2,057
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You could call it permissive will instead.

That is probably just as good.
does the bible anywhere speak of that stuff. God has a will and people violate it all the time. why would God decree the violating of His own will?
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
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But again, God was active in the most atrocious act known to mankind. He wasn’t passive in it. He actively stirred up Kings Pul and Tilgath-Pilneser to attack Israel in 1 Chron. 5:26. He was active in stirring up the Assyrians when they attacked Israel in Isaiah 10, too.
He was active in hardening Pharoah and in the Crucifixion of Christ as well.

But He is NOT active in the temptation of people with evil. Right?

Isn't that what James 1 says?
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
does the bible anywhere speak of that stuff. God has a will and people violate it all the time. why would God decree the violating of His own will?
Yeah. I just posted it. You responded to it. See James 1.

God does not tempt people. And yet people are tempted.
 

Melach

Well-known member
Mar 28, 2019
2,057
1,526
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Yeah. I just posted it. You responded to it. See James 1.

God does not tempt people. And yet people are tempted.
yeah but they arent tempted because of God. its because of the world, the flesh and the devil
 
Oct 25, 2018
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He was active in hardening Pharoah and in the Crucifixion of Christ as well.

But He is NOT active in the temptation of people with evil. Right?

Isn't that what James 1 says?
The crucifixion was what I was alluding to when I said He was active in the most atrocious act known to mankind. He used ppl’s desires to fulfill it. By His determinate counsel and foreknowledge...

God was also active in Job’s afflictions, too. I never said God tempts ppl with evil, as He obviously doesn’t. But He is still active in fulfilling His will.
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
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The crucifixion was what I was alluding to when I said He was active in the most atrocious act known to mankind. He used ppl’s desires to fulfill it. By His determinate counsel and foreknowledge...

God was also active in Job’s afflictions, too. I never said God tempts ppl with evil, as He obviously doesn’t. But He is still active in fulfilling His will.
That's why it is hard to explain.

Because God uses things that aren't good to His Good Purpose.

Romans 8:28 And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose.

Even things that we would consider as bad, still works together for the good to them that Love God and are called according to His Purpose.
 

UnitedWithChrist

Well-known member
Aug 12, 2019
3,739
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@Grandpa @Melach

I am not saying I am 100% convinced He only has an active will, but the passive will teaching tends to make Him rather weak, if taken too far.
Not really, because passive decrees work towards his goal.

I don't think God causes me to choose what color socks to wear in the morning. But, does it violate his will? I don't think so. He is indifferent about it.

If we can show examples how God actively decrees events to fulfill his will, that doesn't prove that events occur that are not actively decreed.

As mentioned, God is not the author of sin. He doesn't cause people to sin. He doesn't really have to, because they have a fallen nature. In fact, he restrains sin as a common grace per Romans 1. By pulling back on his restraint of sin, sin occurs, though. He is not the author of sin, though.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,778
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Christ didn't die for all. Christ died for all who are Saved.
Where is your Scriptural evidence for this contradiction to the Gospel?

However, I will provide you with just one verse to refute what you have said.
The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. (John 1:29)

Even John Calvin could not controvert this. Kindly read his commentary on this exact verse on Bible Hub. And after you have read it, please retract your above statement, and agree with God that Christ died for the sins of the whole world. It could not be otherwise.

Those who disagree with God and Christ place themselves in great jeopardy.
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
113
Where is your Scriptural evidence for this contradiction to the Gospel?

However, I will provide you with just one verse to refute what you have said.
The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. (John 1:29)

Even John Calvin could not controvert this. Kindly read his commentary on this exact verse on Bible Hub. And after you have read it, please retract your above statement, and agree with God that Christ died for the sins of the whole world. It could not be otherwise.

Those who disagree with God and Christ place themselves in great jeopardy.
IF there is no sin in the world then EVERYONE is saved. With or without belief in Christ. We know this is not the case.

OBVIOUSLY, The Lamb of God has taken away the sin of all who believe in Him, in the world.


People who don't believe in Christ don't have their sins taken away.


How is this not obvious to you??? (And to your commentary?)
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,177
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IF there is no sin in the world then EVERYONE is saved. With or without belief in Christ. We know this is not the case.

OBVIOUSLY, The Lamb of God has taken away the sin of all who believe in Him, in the world.


People who don't believe in Christ don't have their sins taken away.


How is this not obvious to you??? (And to your commentary?)
Christ died for all men, but His blood is only applied to those who believe.

1 Timothy 4:10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
15,050
2,538
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IF there is no sin in the world then EVERYONE is saved. With or without belief in Christ. We know this is not the case.

OBVIOUSLY, The Lamb of God has taken away the sin of all who believe in Him, in the world.


People who don't believe in Christ don't have their sins taken away.


How is this not obvious to you??? (And to your commentary?)
Poor interpretation of the passage. Sin is still here even Calvinists still sin. The penalty for sin has been satisfied but sin is still here until the new earth.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
4,114
965
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In Ephesians 5:25, Paul said Christ gave His life for whom? The church. Seeing that the church is His body, and not everyone is a part of His body, you(and Anderson) are pitting scripture against scripture.

But carry on with you false ideology. You guys don’t want exegesis. It will tear down your house of cards theology.
Eph 5:22 Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord.

Eph 5:23 For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body.

Eph 5:24 Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing.

Eph 5:25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;

Eph 5:26 That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word,

Eph 5:27 That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish.

Eph 5:28 So ought men to love their wives as their own bodies. He that loveth his wife loveth himself.

Eph 5:29 For no man ever yet hated his own flesh; but nourisheth and cherisheth it, even as the Lord the church:

Eph 5:30 For we are members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones.

Eph 5:31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh.

Eph 5:32 This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church.

Eph 5:33 Nevertheless let every one of you in particular so love his wife even as himself; and the wife see that she reverence her husband.


The analogy has nothing to do with the ‘Limited Atonement’ that Christ saves his own body, that he gave himself of it in the sense he only atones them. Why there is a need to atone if it was already a part of the body? What did Paul mean when he used the term “save”? By the context, this saving and giving of himself are to feed and to take care of his body, the church. This is not about the pre-salvation but a rather post-salvation experience.
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
3,190
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Poor interpretation of the passage. Sin is still here even Calvinists still sin. The penalty for sin has been satisfied but sin is still here until the new earth.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
So there is no penalty for sin? Everyone is safe?

Do you really believe that?