Well I don't understand this question.
I won't assume bad intentions, but to draw so much from one word is what I equated to the rabbit hole.
If it is speaking of the fallen angel "satan" (which is more a title than name as it is) then yes. The word which has been translated to "man" is being used to describe a male fallen angel.
The original word did indeed have multiple uses, as the current word does.
Do you have reason to believe that verse is speaking of the human, the antichrist who will declare a similar thing come the abomination of desolation?
I won't assume bad intentions, but to draw so much from one word is what I equated to the rabbit hole.
If it is speaking of the fallen angel "satan" (which is more a title than name as it is) then yes. The word which has been translated to "man" is being used to describe a male fallen angel.
The original word did indeed have multiple uses, as the current word does.
Do you have reason to believe that verse is speaking of the human, the antichrist who will declare a similar thing come the abomination of desolation?