Jesus’ Jewishness, God and Anti-Semitism

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
#21
Your post is better described as obfuscation, rather than explanation.

Jesus, the Son of man, is neither a "demonstration" nor a parable. He is God in the flesh. He is the Lamb of God, slain from the foundation of the world.
Your post provides a clear explanation of what you are hoping .

And yes God in the flesh not God as the flesh.

He was used as a one time demonstration .God is not a man as us. Never was never could be.

The Son of man has a beginning and a end. Here today gone tomorrow never to return for another demonstration. The veil is rent.

We are not saved by the demonstration of that seen, but the unseen eternal substance the spirit essence of life. .

1 Corinthians 2:4 And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man's wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power:

Without parables Christ spoke not. Those who look to the literal or what the eyes see, the temporal, miss out on the unseen, eternal hid in the parables. The signified poetic language of God

2 Corinthians 4:18 While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal

Note... Flesh that seen = temporal.
Note... Spirit not seen = eternal
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
7,312
2,428
113
#22
No; Jesus did not come and teach the old law. Jesus came and gave all the rules and regulations for His Last Will and Testament, and then he died and it came into force.
In Jesus' teachings, he tells us how to become an heir, and what to do to receive the inheritance.

Jesus fulfilled the old law with the purification works of the law.

All those works were about him; and when he came, he fulfilled them.

The Jews used to have to get circumcised in the flesh as a physical sign they belonged to God and were clean; now Jesus circumcises us in the heart and our sign we belong to God is that we have the Holy Spirit.

The Jews had to do special baths to wash themselves for various reasons.

Now Jesus washes us with the Word and his blood.

The Jews used to have to adhere to a special diet as a symbol of separatism; now we all can be saved, just by faith.

The Jews used to have to observe special days, those special days were about Jesus; now we observe Jesus all day every day and special day are nothing.

The Jews used to have to sacrifice animals for their blood; now Jesus is the Sacrificial Lamb of God once and for all.

The Jews used to have to go to the temple with a high priest; now Jesus is our High Priest and we become the temple.

So you see how Jesus did not nullify any of that but rather fulfilled it?

All those purification works of the law were a teaching tool about what was coming; Jesus was coming. Those purification works of the law were a shadow of Jesus. Jesus has come and we no longer have to observe shadows. There are no shadows in the Light, Jesus.
Jesus did not come to change anything, certainly not to change his Father. The Torah (first 5 books of scripture) teaches Christ. It teaches that through prayer we go to a forgiving God with our sin and God will forgive that sin, it teaches that blood is required for this forgiveness and a heart that turns from the sin. That has not changed at all, for God is eternal. Christ repeats that it has not changed.

The duties of the High Priest has not changed, they are the same today as they were when man was first told of the Levi high priest. Christ is our high priest.

You are so correct when you say Jesus did not nullify any of that but fulfilled.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,425
6,704
113
#23
Yes rules with Emanuel as God works in the believer to both will and do his good pleasure. Interestingly he asks us to beleive without murmuring? I think to help us have a humble or soft fleshly heart that he as the Potter can form Christ in these earthen vessels (flesh and blood) .

Its interesting that he calls us as those who search the scriptures daily to see if what we hear mixing it with faith (believing God not seen) as kings like the noble Bereans in Acts. after the new manner, no longer after the Levites but after as promised in Joel all the nations of the world, after the new manner of Melchezedek, the Son of God.... he remains our high priest without beginning or end of days..
Imanu is with us and El is God. God with us.

Jesus may be referred to as Everlasting Father, God with us, Ruler of Peace, Councelor, Comforter, and much more...no one understands the I Am mystery well enough to claim to actually reveal the entire mysterfy of the great I Am.
 

YourTruthGod

Active member
Mar 9, 2019
984
85
28
#24
Jesus did not come to change anything,
Of course he did!
The old law was not based on faith and the new law is.
No one is supposed to take an eye for an eye, a hand for a hand, a foot for a foot.
No one is supposed to have many wives and concubines.
No one is supposed to get married and divorced up to three times.
No one has to get circumcised, observe special days, and do various external baths just to be near God's Spirit; no one has to adhere to a special diet and observe special days; no one has to sacrifice animals and go to a temple.
No one has to get cut off for sinning, if they repent.
certainly not to change his Father. The Torah (first 5 books of scripture) teaches Christ. It teaches that through prayer we go to a forgiving God with our sin and God will forgive that sin, it teaches that blood is required for this forgiveness and a heart that turns from the sin. That has not changed at all, for God is eternal. Christ repeats that it has not changed.

The duties of the High Priest has not changed, they are the same today as they were when man was first told of the Levi high priest. Christ is our high priest.

You are so correct when you say Jesus did not nullify any of that but fulfilled.
Glad you agree with that but you are wrong about Jesus not changing anything.

There was a change to that old law, see Hebrews 7:12.
Our new law is the old law with some changes.
 

crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
30,742
3,670
113
#25
He also said that nobody goes to God except through him, but where do you draw the line between fulfilling God’s Law by loving your neighbor, and hating your neighbor contrary to God’s Law? Jesus also says in Matthew 5:44 to love your enemies. Even if the Jews were perceived as being the enemy, would it be Christian-like to not love them?
Romans 11:25-32 KJV
[25] For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in. [26] And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: [27] For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins. [28] As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes. [29] For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance. [30] For as ye in times past have not believed God, yet have now obtained mercy through their unbelief: [31] Even so have these also now not believed, that through your mercy they also may obtain mercy. [32] For God hath concluded all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
7,312
2,428
113
#26
oved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life.” Where in the world did God give his son? He gave him amongst the Jews. If God wanJohn 3: 16 says, “For God so lted that the world not perish, why did He not give his son among the gentiles who did not know of God at all? Why not give Jesus among the Greeks? Does the Bible have an explanation?

While it is true that Proverbs 3:5 says to trust in God with all your heart and not lean on your own understanding, Timothy 3:16 says that the Bible was breathed out by God for our training, correction, reproof and correction. But these things require that we be able to understand what the Bible is saying. So, if the Bible says that Jesus was born amongst the Jews, we may try to understand why he wasn’t born amongst the gentiles such as the Greeks or the non-Jewish Romans.

Romans 1:16 says, “For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, TO THE JEW FIRST and also to the Greek.” God may have wanted that the world be saved, but He started with the Jews. That may be because the Jews’ belief in God, the belief of the People of the Book, had gone astray, with acts such as gambling and trade in God’s House of Worship on the Sabbath. Could the world be saved if God had started with the rest of the world first, by planting Jesus among the Greeks? I guess it would be ironic if the Greeks, who were not God’s chosen people, imparted to God’s chosen people a righteous way of believing in God.

But Romans 1:16 puts the salvation of God to the Jews first before anyone else. And many of Jesus’ disciples were Jewish who learned from Jesus the power of God for salvation, and Jesus in Mark 16:15-16 commands those disciples to spread God’s Word to the rest of the world.

But between then and now, many of the gentiles who were converted saw their duty as forcing their belief in God, among the Jews. And so, these gentiles persecuted the Jews and tried forcing them to convert to their understanding of God through Jesus. That sort of makes topsy-turvy the passage of Romans 1:16. It’s as if Romans 1:16 said, ‘For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, TO THE GREEK FIRST and THEN to the JEW.’

But Romans 1:16 seems to imply that it is up to the Jew to accept God’s salvation through Jesus, not to the gentiles who became aware of God only comparatively recently. But the offspring of those who were newly converted didn’t see it that way, apparently. What motive would they have for persecuting the Jews? Did not Jesus say to love thy neighbor as thyself? Did not Jesus define a neighbor as someone who could help you? Is killing the Jews the Crusade’s way of ioving their neighbor? Are the Inquisitions of the offspring of the newly converted against the Jews their way of loving their neighbor? Is the anti-Semitism that is in the news lately the way of the offspring of the newly-converted of loving their neighbor?

And let’s be sure of Jesus command to his disciples in Mark 16:15-16. When he said to them, “Go into all the world and proclaim the gospel to the whole creation. Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, BUT WHOEVER DOES NOT BELIEVE WILL BE CONDEMNED,” did he mean that whoever does not believe, after receiving his teaching, should be tried for heresy, killed on sight, scorned, displaced, deprived, disenfranchised and ghettoized?

But what was Jesus teaching? He was teaching the Law that was given to the Jews. He says to the Jews in Matthew 5:17, “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.”

He also said that nobody goes to God except through him, but where do you draw the line between fulfilling God’s Law by loving your neighbor, and hating your neighbor contrary to God’s Law? Jesus also says in Matthew 5:44 to love your enemies. Even if the Jews were perceived as being the enemy, would it be Christian-like to not love them?

If God meant for the Jews to be the enemy, if such is the case, then why was Jesus born amongst them? God only knows.
God created the Hebrew race for our benefit, God is faithful to them and thanks them for the use God made of them for our sakes. We are told that we, too, need to honor them for what they have done for us.

ROMANS 11:1-2: I say then, has God cast away His people? Certainly not! For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin. GOD HAS NOT CAST AWAY HIS PEOPLE WHOM HE FOREKNEW. For thousands of years, many righteous-living Jews have lived and died, not knowing that

Salvation is of the Jews. "Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews" (John 4:22).
God’s word came through the Jews. Romans 3:1 What advantage, then, is there in being a Jew, or what value is there in circumcision? 2 Much in every way! First of all, the Jews have been entrusted with the very words of God. 3 What if some were unfaithful? Will their unfaithfulness nullify God’s faithfulness? 4 Not at all! Let God be true, and every human being a liar. Almost every man entrusted with His word in the NT were Jews.

God’s gifts to man came through the Jews, the covenants, the law, God’s promises to us, and even Christ came through the Jews.

The blindness of the Jews is, in part, for our sake. ROMANS 11:25: For I do not desire, brethren, that you should be ignorant of this mystery, lest you should be wise in your own opinion, that blindness in part has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in. The Jews have been blinded to allow time for the FULLNESS of the Gentiles to come in.

We worship the same God the Jews worship, they believe in the same Messiah. We believe the Messiah has come, they do not. They try very hard to obey their God, we don’t. Gentiles go to Christ for the forgiveness of sin and through Christ we are sin free. We forget, then, that through Christ we are to keep free of sin, to die to sin so we actively live sin free. We are told that in that way we are to follow the Jew.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,425
6,704
113
#27
The "old law" was and i always understood in faith without the veil of Moses. It is not ever based on dfaith if one yet is blinded by it.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,411
13,754
113
#28
Your post provides a clear explanation of what you are hoping .

And yes God in the flesh not God as the flesh.

He was used as a one time demonstration .God is not a man as us. Never was never could be.

The Son of man has a beginning and a end. Here today gone tomorrow never to return for another demonstration. The veil is rent.

We are not saved by the demonstration of that seen, but the unseen eternal substance the spirit essence of life. .

1 Corinthians 2:4 And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man's wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power:
How is it that after I clearly state "Jesus is not a demonstration" that you state, "He was used as a demonstration"? Did you read what I wrote? Where is the scriptural support for your statement? You certainly haven't provided any here.
 

Didymous

Senior Member
Feb 22, 2018
5,047
2,101
113
#29
I've encountered anti-Semitism. When I considered these, God's chosen people, I finally learned to have great compassion for them. Though they saw great miracles that most of us have never seen anything like, they continually turned away from God. They have a long history of rebellion and wickedness. Knowing my own people, and others, I finally realized that no group could have done anything differently. We all would've continually failed God-if our group had been his chosen people.
My people, are just as foolish and rebellious-even more so, because most of them don't know God, and don't want to know God.
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
#30
How is it that after I clearly state "Jesus is not a demonstration" that you state, "He was used as a demonstration"? Did you read what I wrote? Where is the scriptural support for your statement? You certainly haven't provided any here.
Hi thanks for the reply. And yes I did read what you wrote. I simply do not agree.

The Son of man, Jesus in regard to his temporal corrupted flesh was used as a demonstration of the unseen promised work of Christ pouring out His Spirit .The actual work that he performed is in respect to the things not seen (the faith principle) "the lamb of God slain from before the foundation of the world". The demonstration (the flesh profiteth nothing) did not profit (as if it was Spirit, the eternal not seen.

John 6:63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

1 Corinthians 2:4 And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man's wisdom, but in "demonstration" of the Spirit and of power:

You could say giving us the power to believe Him who remains without form .
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,411
13,754
113
#31
Hi thanks for the reply. And yes I did read what you wrote. I simply do not agree.

The Son of man, Jesus in regard to his temporal corrupted flesh was used as a demonstration of the unseen promised work of Christ pouring out His Spirit .The actual work that he performed is in respect to the things not seen (the faith principle) "the lamb of God slain from before the foundation of the world". The demonstration (the flesh profiteth nothing) did not profit (as if it was Spirit, the eternal not seen.

John 6:63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

1 Corinthians 2:4 And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man's wisdom, but in "demonstration" of the Spirit and of power:

You could say giving us the power to believe Him who remains without form .
I think that word does not mean what you think it means. You're using 1 Corinthians 2:4 completely out of context. It has nothing to do with Jesus' death on the cross.

I don't say the following to be unkind at all: your phraseology leaves much to be desired. It's like you're trying to sound educated, but you end up sounding ignorant because the way you use words doesn't jibe with the way those words are normally used in English.

Jesus was not "used" as a "demonstration" of anything. He IS God in the flesh, and His death on the cross ACTUALLY atoned for sin. There was no "unseen work"; the work was plain for all to see: actual suffering in His flesh, actual blood, actual physical death, and actual bodily resurrection. If these things are merely shadows, they are meaningless, and we are still in our sins.
 

Lanolin

Well-known member
Dec 15, 2018
23,460
7,188
113
#32
Can someone please explain why the jews are called semites.
Why is it called 'anti-semitism' not 'anti-israelitism' or 'anti-christ'.

Jesus was born into the tribe of Judah. Through his earthly father, Joseph. He was born in Bethlehem Judea which is the tribes alloted land. If he'd been born in say, Egypt, would he still have a claim to the throne? Good question...does it matter WHERE we are born, or is it more important WHO our parents are?
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
#33
Thanks You are blessing, reminding me why I should not of dropped out school. I hated English .I appreciate all the help I can get. I keep learning new words like phraseology .

Jesus was not "used" as a "demonstration" of anything. He IS God in the flesh, and His death on the cross ACTUALLY atoned for sin. There was no "unseen work"; the work was plain for all to see: actual suffering in His flesh, actual blood, actual physical death, and actual bodily resurrection. If these things are merely shadows, they are meaningless, and we are still in our sins.
God is not a man as us. He does not have flesh . He was not created as a beast of the field as mankind. Some faithless ones did know him after the flesh . He rejected that kind of worship and gave all honor to that which could profit the unseen His Holy Spirit. . The demonstration is over. He informs us we know him no more forever more after the flesh.(2 Corinthians 5:16) There will be no more demonstrations. The veil that represented His flesh is not repairable

It would seem you have a different way of expressing your phraseology as we study the words of a passage, we first ask what kind of literature is this passage? I believe without parables is the kind of literature needed to walk by faith. (.the unseen eternal understanding)

The Son of God, Jesus in respect to His corrupted flesh typified as sinful. was used as a demonstration of a unseen promised work of God pouring out his unseen Spirit on corrupted flesh . Christ said flesh without the Spirt profits for nothing . It was a demonstration as shadow of the eternal not seen .God is not a man as us (given a corrupted spirit)

His eternal Spirit has no beginning. Our corrupted spirit has both .a beginning and a end. I would why would god offer a dead sacrifice as a body of death? How could that profit?

1 Corinthians 2:4 And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man's wisdom, but in "demonstration" of the Spirit and of power:

What kind of context would you consider the verse above to be saying seeing you say... does not mean what I think it means? What do you think it means?
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,411
13,754
113
#34
Can someone please explain why the jews are called semites.
Why is it called 'anti-semitism' not 'anti-israelitism' or 'anti-christ'.

Jesus was born into the tribe of Judah. Through his earthly father, Joseph. He was born in Bethlehem Judea which is the tribes alloted land. If he'd been born in say, Egypt, would he still have a claim to the throne? Good question...does it matter WHERE we are born, or is it more important WHO our parents are?
Jews are called "Semites" because they are descended from Shem, the son of Noah. Shemite = Semite. :)
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,411
13,754
113
#35
Thanks You are blessing, reminding me why I should not of dropped out school. I hated English .I appreciate all the help I can get. I keep learning new words like phraseology .



God is not a man as us. He does not have flesh . He was not created as a beast of the field as mankind. Some faithless ones did know him after the flesh . He rejected that kind of worship and gave all honor to that which could profit the unseen His Holy Spirit. . The demonstration is over. He informs us we know him no more forever more after the flesh.(2 Corinthians 5:16) There will be no more demonstrations. The veil that represented His flesh is not repairable

It would seem you have a different way of expressing your phraseology as we study the words of a passage, we first ask what kind of literature is this passage? I believe without parables is the kind of literature needed to walk by faith. (.the unseen eternal understanding)

The Son of God, Jesus in respect to His corrupted flesh typified as sinful. was used as a demonstration of a unseen promised work of God pouring out his unseen Spirit on corrupted flesh . Christ said flesh without the Spirt profits for nothing . It was a demonstration as shadow of the eternal not seen .God is not a man as us (given a corrupted spirit)

His eternal Spirit has no beginning. Our corrupted spirit has both .a beginning and a end. I would why would god offer a dead sacrifice as a body of death? How could that profit?

1 Corinthians 2:4 And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man's wisdom, but in "demonstration" of the Spirit and of power:

What kind of context would you consider the verse above to be saying seeing you say... does not mean what I think it means? What do you think it means?
I'll take this in reverse order...

1 Corinthians 2:4 is Paul talking about his evangelistic work, wherein the preaching of the gospel was accompanied by miraculous acts of the Holy Spirit, which Paul calls "a demonstration of the Spirit and of power". The verse is not talking about the death of Jesus on the cross. It is not sound interpretation to take a verse from Paul and apply it directly to the work of Jesus. The "demonstration" to which Paul referred was not the death and resurrection of Jesus, but the miraculous works that occurred in concert with Paul's ministry: the blinding of Elymas, the reviving of Eutychus, the healing of the lame man in Lystra, etc.

What kind of literature is which passage? Paul's letter is... a letter, not a parable. The gospel records of Jesus' death and resurrection are history, not parables. Honestly Garee, your insistence that the entire Scripture is "parable" leads to some odd conclusions.

It's true that Jesus will not be crucified again. That is a done deal. However, He was not merely a "demonstration"; perhaps a dictionary definition will help here...

demonstration (noun)
Jesus is a person, not an "action", "process", "practical exhibition" or "explanation". :)
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
13,773
113
#36
Jesus did not come to change anything, certainly not to change his Father.
Jesus came to establish the New Covenant. If that is not a DRASTIC CHANGE from the Old Covenant, then you really don't understand Jesus.

As to Anti-Semitism, Christians should understand that Satan HATES Israel and the Jews. All his machinations were destroyed by Christ, the King of the Jews. And God will establish redeemed and restored Israel after the Second Coming of Christ in spite of all Satan's efforts to wipe out Israel.

But between the first an second comings, Jews today should not use Anti-Semitism as an excuse to reject Christ, Christians, and Christianity. At the present time, God makes no distinction between Jew and Gentiles, and blindness in part has happened to Israel because they rejected Yeshua ha Maschiach.
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
#37
How is it that after I clearly state "Jesus is not a demonstration" that you state, "He was used as a demonstration"? Did you read what I wrote? Where is the scriptural support for your statement? You certainly haven't provided any here.
I'll take this in reverse order...

1 Corinthians 2:4 is Paul talking about his evangelistic work, wherein the preaching of the gospel was accompanied by miraculous acts of the Holy Spirit, which Paul calls "a demonstration of the Spirit and of power". The verse is not talking about the death of Jesus on the cross. It is not sound interpretation to take a verse from Paul and apply it directly to the work of Jesus. The "demonstration" to which Paul referred was not the death and resurrection of Jesus, but the miraculous works that occurred in concert with Paul's ministry: the blinding of Elymas, the reviving of Eutychus, the healing of the lame man in Lystra, etc.

What kind of literature is which passage? Paul's letter is... a letter, not a parable. The gospel records of Jesus' death and resurrection are history, not parables. Honestly Garee, your insistence that the entire Scripture is "parable" leads to some odd conclusions.

It's true that Jesus will not be crucified again. That is a done deal. However, He was not merely a "demonstration"; perhaps a dictionary definition will help here...

demonstration (noun)
Jesus is a person, not an "action", "process", "practical exhibition" or "explanation". :)
Jesus mean savior, an attribute of Jehovah . It does not mean flesh or is it connected to the flesh in any way . Jesus in the person of the Son of man gave affirmation that he is the lamb of God slain from before the foundation of the world. The greatest demo ever.

I know enough to know what a demonstration of the real thing is.(The lamb of God slain from before the foundation of the world.)

Its like a sign... "Chicago take next exit". The sign is not the destination it points ahead or back. "You have just left the city limits of Chicago". (and entered the Garee zone or what my wife calls the twilight zone). LOL

The one time demonstration is over. The promise of Isiah 53 has been fulfilled. The veil representing the flesh that could not profit is rent.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
25,411
13,754
113
#38
Jesus mean savior, an attribute of Jehovah . It does not mean flesh or is it connected to the flesh in any way . Jesus in the person of the Son of man gave affirmation that he is the lamb of God slain from before the foundation of the world. The greatest demo ever.

I know enough to know what a demonstration of the real thing is.(The lamb of God slain from before the foundation of the world.)

Its like a sign... "Chicago take next exit". The sign is not the destination it points ahead or back. "You have just left the city limits of Chicago". (and entered the Garee zone or what my wife calls the twilight zone). LOL

The one time demonstration is over. The promise of Isiah 53 has been fulfilled. The veil representing the flesh that could not profit is rent.
I still don't see how you can rationally employ "demonstration" in this context. However, I also don't see any hope of changing your mind. We'll have to agree to disagree... again.
 

Blik

Senior Member
Dec 6, 2016
7,312
2,428
113
#39
Of course he did!
The old law was not based on faith and the new law is.
No one is supposed to take an eye for an eye, a hand for a hand, a foot for a foot.
No one is supposed to have many wives and concubines.
No one is supposed to get married and divorced up to three times.
No one has to get circumcised, observe special days, and do various external baths just to be near God's Spirit; no one has to adhere to a special diet and observe special days; no one has to sacrifice animals and go to a temple.
No one has to get cut off for sinning, if they repent.

Glad you agree with that but you are wrong about Jesus not changing anything.

There was a change to that old law, see Hebrews 7:12.
Our new law is the old law with some changes.
By learning to know and understand the sameness in our creator, all three parts of our creator, we learn to know the eternal principles of God. There are people in our churches today who have created a false God through denying the principles that are eternal in the true God. Christ is one with the true God, if we only think of the changes and are blind to the sameness we falsify God.

By studying the OT and also learning the culture of the people told of there it would make some of your points clear to you. As an example, God isn't for taking out an eye. It was a saying meaning justice. We say "look before you leap" and we aren't talking of leaping any more than scripture telling us to take out an eye.
 

YourTruthGod

Active member
Mar 9, 2019
984
85
28
#40
By learning to know and understand the sameness in our creator, all three parts of our creator, we learn to know the eternal principles of God. There are people in our churches today who have created a false God through denying the principles that are eternal in the true God. Christ is one with the true God, if we only think of the changes and are blind to the sameness we falsify God.

By studying the OT and also learning the culture of the people told of there it would make some of your points clear to you. As an example, God isn't for taking out an eye. It was a saying meaning justice. We say "look before you leap" and we aren't talking of leaping any more than scripture telling us to take out an eye.
It sounds like you don't trust and believe the scriptures. I don't see how one could ever have peace and knowledge that way.