Genesis, sons of God, nephilim, and Giants

I see'd what you did there

As stated in 1Corinthians 15, as we have been born in the image of the earthy, we shall bear the image of the heavenly.

Ok, I can see how all sons and daughters were begotten in the image of Adam, as all sons and daughters have been under the curse, since Adam's fall.
This additional image under the curse, however, does not negate, man also being in the image of God.

It is really curious I think for Moses to have said what he did about the sons of God. Why I say that is that if you examine the time type references in Job and compare them with Moses they all lived before Moses and so the understanding of who the sons of God are/were had already been established and understood before Genesis was written.

Eliphaz https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eliphaz_(Job) , Bildad https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bildad Zophar https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zophar and Elihu https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elihu_(Job) and their genealogies and who his friends were of are found in scripture.

So these sons of God are involved in presenting themselves before God(somewhere,lol) and Job and his friends had lived and died before Moses so Moses is who gave the additional information about the sons of God(from Job) taking wives from among the daughters of men and having children with them. I believe both books to be inspired by God and that if what Moses wrote about the sons of God found in the book of Job were not the same as in Job it would not be spoken of in this manner in Genesis.

How about this soandso?

Heb 1:5 For to which of the angels did God ever say, “You are my Son; today I have become your Father”? Or again, “I will be his Father, and he will be my Son”?

And:

Luke 3:38 Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.

Was Adam an angel?

You glossed over the first part of my post:

Did God create angels with sexual organs? If so, why only male organs? Why are there no female angels mentioned? Why create one set and not the other? Why create seed when there is no counterpart to receive it and produce offspring?

If God did not create angels with sexual organs, who did? Satan?

Could some angels just manifest them out of the blue all by their lonesome?

Interesting note, Scripture says in heaven there is no marriage for we will be as the angels. Could this mean that everyone will be male? All angels are male.

My point was simply this: Why would God make angels with male sexual organs, create "seed" for them, and yet not create female angels to procreate with? If angels do not procreate (as there is ZERO evidence in scripture that angels have sexual relations - and the fact never ONCE are female angels spoken of) then what was the point of God giving them that ability? If relations are only for the marriage bed, and angels do not marry (again, who would they marry if there are no female angels) then the idea that angels suddenly manifested sexual organs and seed by themselves, or Satan somehow had the ability to create those things so as to have sex with human women to produce children, is ludicrous.

Either they were human men from the line of Seth, or evil angels possessed human men to poison the bloodline.

You have a fair point. I believe angels can take on form of human flesh and become mortal. Those that did in the days of Noah, died in the flood and are reserved in chains in darkness for judgment.

Angels cannot become mortal (they can only "appear" as a man) - nor can they die. And they certainly can't create sexual organs and seed for reproduction.

I have always viewed Hebrews 1 as speaking of Jesus and not the sons of God spoken of in Job or Genesis who took the daughters of men to wife and bore children with them so I don't equate Jesus as the son(s) of God who corrupted the earth causing it to be destroyed in the flood. As for Adam it is said that he ate of the fruit but it never says that he saw the daughters of men and bore children with them I think he only had children with Eve.

There are the sons of God mentioned in Job after the flood who presented themselves to God and the Hebrews were in Egypt and it is not said that they attended a meeting where they presented themselves before God so it seems they are excluded. And there are Jobs friends and Job himself who as it also seems did not present themselves before God(Job 1&2) from the language of the text of Job they all were contemplating the things happening to Job and none of them bring up Satan and the meeting where God points Job out so they weren't at the meeting either I think.

So the sons of God we are looking at were from before the flood but the meeting where they presented themselves before God happens after the flood,after Abraham,while the 12 sons of Jacob are in bondage in Egypt and before Moses was born. I have things to do and will try to be back tonight.

A few things, here ^...

Would people (located on the earth) necessarily know that Satan was present in such a meeting? (Not necessarily, IMO.)

I find repeatedly in the entire context the phrase "H1961 H3117" which I don't find ever being used elsewhere in Scripture to be referring to a Heavenly-located setting/context.

And if we can find even just ONE other passage that uses "H3320 H5921" of humans (located on the earth, doing this) then we can consider this a legit view of this passage as well (Job 1:7 & 2:1 [2x]). And I find that "H3320 H5921" IS indeed used regarding "humans, located on the earth," thus rendering this very possible (and I believe the more likely explanation [similarly] of Job 1 & 2). And that is in Psalm 2:2 ( https://biblehub.com/text/psalms/2-2.htm And here, the English words used are "set themselves" and "against"... which doesn't necessarily have to be the identical "intent" in the Job verses... I'm just showing that it is possible for "humans, located on the earth" to do this... the context of Job 1 & 2's numerous mentions of various "H1961 H3117" calls for this [earthly location], as I see it).

^ Another thought... regarding the "H5921 ['against']" word in Psalm 2:2 (used in Job 1 & 2 also)… that this word is also used in Job 1:8 (where God is saying to Satan, "have you considered [against - H5921] My servant Job..." where the word H5921 doesn't really show up in English), but is not used in the 2nd chpt where God says a similar thing AFTER Job's initial trials, where He instead says "considered TO [H413] [My servant Job--and all the trials you've observed him experience up to now]" in Job2:3. [and the word "considered" can mean "set"... so "set against" or the like, in chpt 1]


I think this is showing that God knew Satan had come to Job's area of the world and set his sights on doing his dirty work THERE (involving Job). Similarly to how Jesus had said of Simon, "...Satan hath desired to have you, that he may sift you as wheat: BUT I...".

Well, you and I may differ on this point right here ^ .

I believe that Revelation 12:7-9,12,13,14 refers to events yet future to us, where the verses say such things as:

--"for the devil is come down to you, having great wrath, because he knoweth he hath but A SHORT TIME" (which phrase is used elsewhere to mean... "a short time" lol)
--"and WHEN the dragon saw that he was cast down unto the earth [that is, now limited to that sphere], he persecuted the woman who had brought forth [HAD BROUGHT FORTH before this point in time] the male [G730 - arsena]." (note: the word "child" is not in this verse)
--"a thousand two hundred and threescore days" / "for a time, times, and half a time" (which I believe [both] is the 2nd half of the future 7-yr trib)
--"woe unto the earth" (which I believe is the 1st "WOE [unto the earth]"... that is, at the 5th Trumpet events, i.e. mid-trib)



I believe "prince of the power of the air" pertains to the present time (as well as "spiritual wickedness in high places"), meaning, before [or until] the Rapture of "the Church which is His body".

What about Genesis 3:15
And I will put emnity between thee and the woman, between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

Who is God referring to here, isnt he referring to the serpent? Wasnt the serpent a mouthpiece for satan who as we understand was a fallen angel. Or what two kinds of seeds is He talking about?

Am not saying you are right or wrong but how did angels multiply to be so many in the first place? Or did God create each one individually. They may have stopped reproduction at some stage when they became immortal...perhaps you could explain this passage?

^ Consider that the following two verses are speaking of "people" (not "angels"):

John 8:44 [blb] -

"You are of your father the devil, and you desire to do the desires of your father. He was a murderer from the beginning, and has not stood in the truth, because there is no truth in him. Whenever he might speak falsehood, he speaks from the own; for he is a liar, and the father of it."


Matthew 13:38 [blb] -

"and the field is the world; and the good seed, these are the sons of the kingdom; and the weeds [/tares] are the sons of the evil one;"