Was doing some research and just realized that (as best I can tell) "maranatha" only appears once in the Bible. Is that right?
And, when it does, it is as a "curse" against non believers.
1 Corinthians 16:22) If any man love not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema Maranatha.
There are numerous Scriptures that speak of the return of Christ, but they do not use "maranatha" in them.
Weird huh?