Reactions received by williamjordan
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I am not sure I follow your line of reasoning. Why should the pre-incarnate Jesus be referred to only as "God" and not "Jesus"? Why... -
Did you intend to say John 16:23-24? That is where the citation which you quote comes from. There are some conspiritorial claims that... -
Well unfortunately you (as a KJV Onlyist) can’t use this kind of reasoning. If this is the position you wish to hold, then I will have... -
Oh no, He just decided to preserve His words in a language (and that of, the “inspired” KJV) that up until the last couple hundred years... -
No, because I’m a “Wherever the Evidence Leads” Onlyist. And my version is quite flexible, and in complete harmony with orthodoxy...
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No, because I’m a “Wherever the Evidence Leads” Onlyist. And my version is quite flexible, and in complete harmony with orthodoxy...
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So in John 3:16 (KJV), what does the term "whosoever," mean? Think about it long and hard, because you said the KJV defines itself, yet...
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Except only one thing, Nehemiah. No one ever said "whosoever" was "inappropriate," did they? Can you cite one example, where anyone... -
Um.. quite a number, actually. Thousands. It really depends on the text under discussion. Some mss only contain sections of Paul, or...
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I cannot help but facepalm. You are being quite hypocritical here. You just got done saying that "Jesus Christ" is not a lexical... -
TI cannot help but facepalm. You are being quite hypocritical here. You just got done saying that "Jesus Christ" is not a lexical...
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So with both eyes closed. Got it.
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You are simply just parsing words in the order they appear in Greek, but that's not exactly how you would communicate it in English...
