Recent content by tygger2

................................................................ The NIV Study Bible, Zondervan, 1985 clearly recognizes the truth about the lesser meaning of theos and elohim ('a god'): "In the language of the OT ... rulers and judges, as deputies of the heavenly King, could be given the...

............................................... "... the Bible actually describes men who represent God (judges, Israelite kings, etc.) and God's angels as gods..." You tell me: true gods or false gods? Or is that the only choice?

I'm sorry that you won't read evidence provided for you. For example, the footnote for part two above shows some of the many trinitarian scholars who admit that good men. and angels were called gods.

............................................................................ John 17:1, 3.

There are two more parts but I know no one will read any of it (as usual), so I'll stop here.

Part Five John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): The above lessons show that word order (predicate noun before the verb as found in the NT Greek of John 1:1c) does not change the meaning to an understood article (“the”) as Colwell’s Rule suggests or to some nebulous ‘qualitative’ meaning as some other...

Part Four John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): It’s been many years since I looked up all the clauses in John’s writing which had predicate nouns (also called predicate nominatives). Then I made a list of all of them which are parallel to John 1:1c (predicate noun coming before the verb). I didn’t...

Part Three John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): But, you may ask, Isn’t there a significance to the reversed word order in the Greek (‘god was the word’) which is, in English, ‘the word was god.’? If you will examine a good NT interlinear, you will find that word order is basically meaningless. NT...

Part Two: John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): The next step in finding John’s intended meaning of John 1:1c is to look up the meanings of theos in a good NT lexicon. Numerous Trinitarian scholars [see footnote] admit that this word was also used for angels, kings, and God-appointed men such as...

.............................................. Is my link not working? I'll try another study of the same thing: how John intended theos to be understood at Jn 1:1c by examining all the places he has used the same grammar. Part One: John 1:1 in NT Greek: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ...

.......................................................... Is that what my personal study said? What would be the grammatical evidence for such an understanding?

From my personal study: http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2009/09/john-11c-primer_21.html

.................................................................................... I know that the first verse (John 11:1) is purposely mistranslated by nearly all trinitarian Bible translators.