How do you understand Acts2:39 in light of your claim that Acts2:38 is covenantally restricted to Israel only?
Acts 2:38 Comparison: Evangelical vs. Oneness / Baptismal-Regeneration View
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How do you understand Acts2:39 in light of your claim that Acts2:38 is covenantally restricted to Israel only?
We agree that Acts2:39 ultimately speaks globally, including Gentiles.
Remaining here for now, since 2:39 grammatically explains 2:38, I find this problematic:
- Peter commands repentance and baptism, yet you negate these as applying globally.
- Peter commands physical baptism, which you negate and turn into “spiritual baptism."
- Peter speaks of receiving the gift of the Holy Spirit, which you change to “spiritual baptism.”
- So, you’ve acknowledged a global scope, then narrowed and negated it, while importing terminology and altering Peter’s language.
What baptism did John say Jesus would baptize with?
Only Jesus who knows mans true repentant heart, baptizes with the Holy Spirit.
God Breathed Word:
Eph 4:5 One Lord, One Faith, One BAPTISM!
1 Cor 12:13 """For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body""", whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.
Note this carefully:
By the HOLY SPIRIT we're ALL BAPTIZED into one body.
Scripture proclaims:
One Baptism, into one body, Christ alone baptizes with the Holy Spirit & No H2O used!
1 Cor 14 "spirit"” (lowercase) human spirit/disposition:
2:11, 4:21, 5:3, 6:20, 7:34, 14:14, 14:15, 14:16, 14:32
1 Cor 14 "Spirit" (capital S) > Holy Spirit:
2:4, 2:10, 2:11, 2:12, 2:13, 3:16, 6:11, 6:19, 7:40, 12:3, 12:4, 12:7, 12:8, 12:9, 12:11, 12:13, 14:2, 14:14, 15:45
These are not random choices. Translation committees consistently capitalize "Spirit" when the context clearly refers to the Holy Spirit & they consistently leave "spirit" lowercase when it refers to the human spirit or human disposition.
In 1 Cor 12:13 they deliberately capitalized "Spirit," signaling that Paul is speaking of the HOLY SPIRIT as the baptizer, not water, not a preacher, not a ceremony. It's a divine action.
Col 2:11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision "made without hands", in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:
(NOTE: The Old Testament covenant of circumcision in Gen 17 required PHYSICIAL hands. A literal, flesh cutting ritual performed by human hands. The circumcision of Christ, is "made without hands." The circumcision of Christ is the inward, SPIRITUAL baptism of Christ's indwelling Spirit & no water is required.
Deut 30:6 (A) the Lord thy God will circumcise thine heart)
From Acts2:38-39 alone, how do you justify redefining, rewording or negating Peter’s commands once you’ve acknowledged their global scope?
The outreach belongs to the Lord. Peter is simply the vessel He uses.
The transition from the Old Covenant to the New begins at Pentecost in Jerusalem with Mosaic adherent Jews only (Acts 2).
These are covenant insiders, already circumcised, Torah observant & living under Mosaic Law.
The Lord’s chosen method of New Covenant administration in (Acts 2) is: Repentance > Water Baptism > Holy Spirit Reception. This order is unique to Israel at Pentecost & is never repeated for Gentiles.
About 10 years later, the New Covenant reaches the house of Cornelius, an uncircumcised Gentile (Acts 10) A covenant outsider with no access to Israel’s Law or identity markers.
The Lord's chosen method of New Covenant administration in Acts 10 is: Hearing the gospel > Believing > Receiving the Holy Spirit > THEN water baptism. The Spirit falls before water, proving Gentiles are included apart from Israel's covenant requirements.
BTW: Scripture repeatedly shows the Acts 10 order as the Lord's ongoing pattern for salvation. Faith > Spirit > Water. Scripture never once repeats the Acts 2 sequence. Pentecost is a one time, Israel specific administration, not the universal formula.
Your mistake is treating the Pentecost administration as the universal salvation formula. But that is not how the Lord chose to implement the New Covenant across groups.
Acts 2 is Israel’s administration. - Acts 10 is Gentile administration.
The Lord Himself makes the distinction. NOT Peter, NOT tradition & NOT us.
No, it doesn't prove that at all. It was an exception to get Peter's attention
This is absurd. Just of the top of my head, the Roman jailer believed and was baptized. No mention of the baptism of the spirit.
This is just mid-Acts dispensationalism garbage. Two covenants, two nations, double confusion
I could say the same thing about you
So, your faith is clearly not exclusively in Jesus Christ for salvation but is in acceptance of Faith Alone Regeneration Theology for salvation.
The belief that the Bible teaches that baptism is the moment of the remission of sins is not a work.
This has been clearly stated to you a number of times.
Insistence in faith alone regeneration theology can be a substitute for faith "exclusively in Jesus Christ for salvation".
Your efforts in pushing this theology as the moment of the remission of sins borders of the pharisaical.
Pharisaical? That's funny. My faith is exclusively in Jesus Christ for salvation and not in Jesus Christ + baptism or any other works. Water baptism is a work of righteousness (Matthew 3:13-15) and we are not saved by works of righteousness which we have done. (Titus 3:5)
So, the Lord or an asserted ‘administrative context’ allows you to do what I identified earlier re: your post: we agreed Acts 2:39 speaks globally, yet you negate Peter’s commands for repentance and baptism as global, turn physical baptism into ‘spiritual baptism,’ redefine receiving the gift of the Holy Spirit as ‘spiritual baptism,’ and thereby narrow and alter Peter’s language.
And for the record, I didn’t assert anything about Pentecost - I’ve been asking you to explain your redefining and restating of what Peter actually says.
Do you understand what I’m asking you and why I asked you if v.39 was restricted to Israel? Looking only at Acts 2:38-39: if v.39 applies v.38 globally, but the commanded repentance and baptism are not global, then either v.39 is not truly global, or only part of v.38 is being made global. On what grammatical basis do you make that division?
Your problem is, scripture say's it like this:
1 Cor 12:13 """For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body""", whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.
It say's: the SPIRIT BAPTIZES all into one body.
Who [NOT WHAT] did John the Baptist say would baptize with the SPIRIT?
No it doesn't. It says this
και γαρ εν ενί πνεύματι ημείς πάντες εις εν σώμα εβαπτίσθημεν είτε Ιουδαίοι είτε Έλληνες είτε δούλοι είτε ελεύθεροι και πάντες εις εν πνεύμα εποτίσθημεν 1 Corinthians 12:13
εν ενί πνεύματι means in one spirit, not by one spirit. Big difference
LOL, you're arguing over "by" vs "in," but either way, the verse still destroys your water‑baptism reading.
Notice what the text actually says & doesn't say:
It is a completed fact ("we were baptized"), not a command.
The element is explicitly one SPIRIT, not water.
The result is being placed into one body, not into a local congregation by a ritual.
There is no human administrator mentioned, no preacher, no water, no formula.
You want to read this as if it says: We were all baptized in water into one body, and then we received the Spirit.
But that's not what scripture records. Scripture Proclaims: we were all baptized in one Spirit into one body, and then says we all drink of one Spirit. The whole verse is Spirit centered & NOT water centered.
It clearly says we were baptized into one body in one spirit. Or, in one spirit we were baptized into one body. So we were made one body in one spirit in water baptism. The spirit is received through water baptism
@FlyingDove
Can you show me a biblical example of where this happened please I am just trying to understand how this is done by scriptural support you know the old book chapter and verse way
Can you show me a biblical example of where this happened please I am just trying to understand how this is done by scriptural support you know the old book chapter and verse way
Important point for discussion. Nice to see that someone cares to look at these little prepositions that can be big differences.
Seems very consistent in the Text:
- Matt3:11 Jesus will baptize in-en Holy Spirit
- Mark1:8 Jesus will baptize in-en Holy Spirit
- Acts1:5 you will be baptized in-en Holy Spirit
- 1Cor12:13 in-en one Spirit we all were baptized into-eis one Body
- Set up by 1Cor10:2 in-en the cloud and in-en the sea all were baptized into-eis Moses
- The is locative language - the sphere in which baptism takes place - water & Holy Spirit
- The ones doing the baptisms are Jesus' agents & Jesus
NKJ Matt28:18-20 And Jesus came and spoke to them, saying, "All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. 19 "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 "teaching them to keep/guard/preserve/observe/obey all things that I have commanded you; and lo,
I am with you always, even to the end of the age." Amen.
I am with you always, even to the end of the age." Amen.