77 Changed Doctrines in Modern Bibles

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Thanks DavidLamb, for your comments. I was looking at the first verse of the Bible in KJV and I noticed that it is different in the NKJV:

"In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. " KJV

"In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. " NKJV

Since the very first verse is different in the NKJV, it made me leery of it. I have not compared beyond that, though, and the original texts in Hebrew and so forth are (of course) really the thing to go on when searching meaning - not that I know much Hebrew, or Aramaic, or Greek, but there are concordances to look up words, as we all know. Still, I use the KJV, and find that, to my mind, trying to make scripture more relatable to easy vernacular can change ideas based on translators' assumptions about meaning. Hollywood likes the NKJV, since the movie 'The Book of Eli' uses it. I am sticking with the KJV and looking up words in a concordance if it seems necessary.
I encourage you to read 2 Corinthians 12:2 in the KJV in light of your argument here. If there is a “third heaven” then by the rules of grammar, “heavens” (plural) is correct.

Further, you are assuming that the KJV is correct apparently on the basis of your own familiarity rather than on any objective evidence that it is the best translation.
 
Timothy 4:1-4
1 Now the Spirit manifestly saith, that in the last times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to spirits of error, and doctrines of devils 2 Speaking lies in hypocrisy, and having their conscience seared, 3 Forbidding to marry, to abstain from meats, which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving by the faithful, and by them that have known the truth. 4 For every creature of God is good, and nothing to be rejected that is received with thanksgiving: 5 For it is sanctified by the word of God and prayer.
What is your point?
 
Please copy & paste the first few changes from the version that includes Calvinism for us to discuss here.

Here it is:

Screenshot 2025-10-10 at 11.36.25 AM.png

Note: Coincidentally, I am working on fine tuning a document against Calvinism for a fellow brother in Brazil. I can send that to you once it is finished. Anyway, there are many changes in Modern Bibles when compared to the KJV. Many of these changes are for the worse and not for the better. There are doctrines that are unique to the KJV, as well. So the claim by others here that such doctrine is taught elsewhere is false and they simply have never done the study before. It's because they don't care to do the study or to look into these things.


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I have only looked at the first few of the 77, but so far, the NKJV, which I use, seems not to change the doctrines.

If you go to page 8 in the Table of Contents, number 18 says "New King James Bible Deception".
I go into why the NKJV is a trojan horse. The NKJV is just silly in my view. It would be like telling your buddy who likes Ford cars to come over your house because you have a Ford to sell him, but when he gets there, he sees that all you have to sell is a Corvette with Ford symbols on it. Many of the men who worked on the NKJV were Critical Text advocates and they had a lower view of the Textus Receptus. This is why the NKJV has Critical Text Bible readings in it (i.e., translation choice differences and not textual differences). Granted, 1 John 3:16 in the NKJV removes the words "of God" from the phrase: "love of God" in the KJV. This is a watering down of the deity of Christ because it is telling us that Jesus is God here. Jesus who is God is the One who laid down His life for us.

You said:
For example, "Modern Bibles in Philippians 2:7 change doctrine by denying the active power of Jesus Christ during His Earthly ministry. For instance: Modern bibles falsely say Jesus emptied himself or gave up his divine privileges." Philippians 2:7 appears as follows in the NKJV:

“but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men.” (Php 2:7 NKJV)
Your second "Changed Doctrine" includes: "John 1:18 "the only begotten Son" (KJB) is wrongfully changed to “The only begotten God.” " John 1:18 in the NKJV says:

“No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared [Him].” (Joh 1:18 NKJV)

Changed Doctrine 3 says: "Modern Bibles falsely teach that Jesus had faith in Hebrews 12:2" That verse in the NKJV reads:

“looking unto Jesus, the author and finisher of our faith, who for the joy that was set before Him endured the cross, despising the shame, and has sat down at the right hand of the throne of God.” (Heb 12:2 NKJV)

Changed Doctrine 4includes: "1.Luke 9:55–56 – Modern Translations remove Jesus’ words, “Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of. For the Son of man is not come to destroy men’s lives, but to save them.” This is not a small edit. It erases a vital lesson. Without these words, the passage loses Christ’s clear teaching that whenever we feel others deserve destruction, we are not operating in His Spirit. Jesus corrected James and John by reminding them that His mission was mercy, not vengeance. To strip this out is to silence one of the most practical safeguards against a vengeful heart."

The two verses in the NKJV say:

“But He turned and rebuked them, and said, “You do not know what manner of spirit you are of. For the Son of Man did not come to destroy men’s lives but to save [them].” And they went to another village.” (Lu 9:55-56 NKJV)

So of course there are some modern versions of the bible in English that mistranslate the original Greek or Hebrew, but it seems too sweeping a generalisation to suggest that all do

If you know anything about the KJV vs. Modern Bibles discussion, you will realize that...

(a) The KJV (New Testament) is based upon the Beza 1598 Greek primarily except for 20 or so translatable differences. The Hebrew (Old Testament) of the KJV is based upon the Ben Chayyim Masoretic.
(b) Modern Critical Text English Bibles (New Testament) are based upon the Nestle and Aland Greek text that constantly shape shifts every few years (NA-28 right now). This text has Vaticanus and Sinaiticus priority or primacy. Meaning, they give preference or priority to these two manuscripts for the Greek NT. This Vaticanus and Sinaiticus primacy was popularized by Westcott and Hort. Modern Bibles use the BHS Hebrew, which is a slightly different Hebrew text printed compared to the Ben Chayyim.
(c) The NKJV is a primarily based on the Textus Receptus (TR), but it does not always follow the TR or the English readings in the KJV, and it subtly pushes Critical Text readings without alerting the reader to this. The cover of the NKJV should say it is approximately 90 some percent KJV / TR with some Critical Text readings sprinkled within it. But I don't think that it would have sold too well if it clearly placed those words or details on the cover of the NKJV.

Anyway, this is why you will not find as many heretical changes in the NKJV as say other Critical Text Bibles which are just absolute trash or garbage (doctrinally speaking) when compared to the KJV. My PDF makes this fact absolutely clear. Only those who have itching ears will not want to see the facts.

What you fail to understand is the Christian culture today and what has happened because of the Westcott and Hort text (i.e., the Nestle and Aland text). I have run into Christians claiming that Jesus sinned and they quote a Modern Bible. I have ran into a Christian who falsely claims that the second person of the Trinity (the Word or the Son of God) did not always exist from eternity's past. No doubt, they would love the false Modern Bible renderings that teach this false heresy. Also, it is popular today for Christians to believe in the false teaching that either (a) Jesus did not have power during His earthly ministry or (b) He did not actively use His own power as God during His earthly ministry. I provide verses showing that Jesus did have power during His earthly ministry in the PDF. So Modern Bibles are teaching something extremely or false about our LORD. Many Christians today also think sex before marriage is okay. Again, is this a coincidence that some Modern Bibles remove the word "fornication" completely? Yes, in some cases that word is still there, but it is less frequent. The point is that when you mess with God's Word, there are consequences in how it affects the church. It's cause and effect.

The NKJV is a hybrid text and its not even for one side or the other. It's not really a true faithful Textus Receptus Bible and its not a full blown Critical Text Bible either (with all its readings that should make a person want to throw up).

Anyways, all I can do is to encourage you to pray about this and to keep reading through my PDF more with an open mind.


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What this guy is saying is that modern translations are destroying his pet theologies that are inconsistent with the Gospel message.

And I'm not exactly upset about this.

Security of the Saints vx perseverance of the saints.
Diety and humanity of Jesus is preserved.

Irresistible grace is also destroyed.

Election and atonement is still limited.

God hasn't changed....nor has His desires for mankind. The path is as its always been....very very narrow and very few ever find it....even by some looking for it.

What the writer is whining about is his micro view of scripture instead of the macro viewpoint. Which causes all sorts of errors theologically speaking.

There is zero self-righteousness....never has been and never will be any sufficient enough to gain access to Heaven.

I provided two editions. One that does not condemn Calvinism, and one that does.
This would show that I am actually being more impartial here.
Granted, the real reason I created two editions is because there are folks who are Calvinists who have provided really good content to defending the KJV as God's perfect Word. I do talk with a particular Calvinist on rare occasion who is KJV-only, although I disagree with Calvinism.


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So this is the scripture YOU QUOTE here -----IN CONTEXT _____

Here is the thing DavidLamb ------that you need to LEARN ------

IF YOU TAKE OUT THE WORD ___TEXT ___FROM CONTEXT _____YOUR LEFT WITH------- A ___CON ______

THIS is the CONTEXT of PHILIPPIANS 2 ------and nowhere does it say that Jesus gave up His DIVINE PRIVILEGES --------CAUSE it is not Taking about Jesus here ---

It is Talking about----------- US ----HUMANITY___IMITATING CHRIST'S HUMANITY ----

Here is the Scripture in CONTEXT ______NOt -------IN ---------CON

Imitating Christ’s Humility

2 Therefore if you have any encouragement from being united with Christ, if any comfort from his love, if any common sharing in the Spirit, if any tenderness and compassion,

2 then make my joy complete by being like-minded, having the same love, being one in spirit and of one mind.

3 Do nothing out of selfish ambition or vain conceit. Rather, in humility value others above yourselves,

4 not looking to your own interests but each of you to the interests of the others.

5 In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus:

6 Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;


7 rather, he made himself nothing


Get This ---this is talking -----OUR ---- Relationships -------this is your CONTEXT ---

You cannot separate Verses 5--6--7----if you do --your taking the TEXT ------out of CONTEXT and your left WITH A ___CON ____like you are believing -----

I say to you ---------So go back ---look every Scripture you have Quoted as being changed in the Modern Day Bibles and READ THE full CONTEXT -------STOP TAKING THE --------TEXT OF OF ______CONTEXT


ALERT !!!!!!!!!!!

YOUR THE ONE BEING -----CONNED ----by BELIEVING ------CONS who are trying to discredit GOD"S WORD

and that comes from GUESS WHO ------

View attachment 280679

I appreciate your comment, but your interpretation of Philippians 2 overlooks the plain structure and flow of Paul’s argument. The passage indeed calls believers to humility, but the example Paul gives in verses 5 through 8 is not about us; it is about Christ Himself. Verse 6 clearly identifies Jesus as the subject: “Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.” No human being fits that description. The context shows that Paul is grounding his exhortation to humility in the doctrine of Christ’s incarnation. Jesus, who is fully God, willingly made Himself of no reputation by taking upon Him the form of a servant, not by giving up His deity but by humbling Himself in becoming man. The call to let this mind be in you means we are to imitate His attitude of humility, not to reinterpret His divine nature as though the passage were talking about humanity in general. By denying that verses 6 and 7 speak of Christ’s preexistence and self-emptying, you are actually taking the text out of context, because Paul’s entire point is that the humility of believers should mirror the humility that the eternal Son of God displayed when He became flesh.


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I can see already that the author ignored prior criticism and chose to generalize his comments.

No doctrine is built from a single verse, so claiming that a change in the wording of any verse “changes a doctrine” is fundamentally flawed.

The KJV is not the standard against which all other English translations are measured, so comparisons between any other version and the KJV just highlights difference, not change.

Of course, I told the author these thongs many months ago, but he chose to ignore valid criticism and has forged ahead blindly.

So, @Bible_Highlghter, how does it feel knowing that your months of work are essentially one big logical fallacy?

Yeah, while I am hoping that I am wrong here, I don't think you are going to take the time to carefully read what I wrote in my PDF. If you did, I actually highlight several instances in Modern Bibles that erase unique doctrinal truths found only in the KJV. But you would have to read through the 77 to find them, and look into yourself and compare. I actually would like to be challenged to see if I am wrong or not. I did double check my study, but if you truly are correct as you claim, then you should back that up by actually testing the points I made.



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Jesus told us in this time most would have an outward form of Godliness denying the power, if we only focus on reading about Him, we will not be talking with Him, or perceiving His guidance.
Holy Spirit guides in all truth.
blessings

Jesus rebuked others for not knowing the Scriptures and he used them to defeat the devil.
There can be only one Word of God and not many and if Modern Bibles do lead people to believe false things (which I believe they do), then things are not as you say. Anyone can claim to have the Spirit, but if they hold to false teachings that runs contrary to God's Word that was inspired by the Spirit, then they are not of God.


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"Blind guides, who strain out a gnat and swallow a camel!" Matthew 23:24

I would actually say this is true of Mark Ward's false attacks against the KJV. He does not even get "Study" right in 2 Timothy 2:15. I explain this in my PDF. Just check it out. Go to the Table of Contents on page 8 and look for "Study to Shew Thyself Approved Unto God" and click on the page number 90.

Mark Ward attacks the archaic or uncommon wording in the KJV (gnats) and even says it is a sin to give a KJV to a child, but he refuses to ignore the discussion of doctrinal camels that teach false things in Critical Text Bibles. He will not engage on the very PDF I created. Granted, many of you here will do the same. No offense of course. I do love you all in Christ.


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I have only looked at the first few of the 77, but so far, the NKJV, which I use, seems not to change the doctrines.

For example, "Modern Bibles in Philippians 2:7 change doctrine by denying the active power of Jesus Christ during His Earthly ministry. For instance: Modern bibles falsely say Jesus emptied himself or gave up his divine privileges." Philippians 2:7 appears as follows in the NKJV:

“but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men.” (Php 2:7 NKJV)

Your second "Changed Doctrine" includes: "John 1:18 "the only begotten Son" (KJB) is wrongfully changed to “The only begotten God.” " John 1:18 in the NKJV says:

“No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared [Him].” (Joh 1:18 NKJV)

Changed Doctrine 3 says: "Modern Bibles falsely teach that Jesus had faith in Hebrews 12:2" That verse in the NKJV reads:

“looking unto Jesus, the author and finisher of our faith, who for the joy that was set before Him endured the cross, despising the shame, and has sat down at the right hand of the throne of God.” (Heb 12:2 NKJV)

Changed Doctrine 4includes: "1.Luke 9:55–56 – Modern Translations remove Jesus’ words, “Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of. For the Son of man is not come to destroy men’s lives, but to save them.” This is not a small edit. It erases a vital lesson. Without these words, the passage loses Christ’s clear teaching that whenever we feel others deserve destruction, we are not operating in His Spirit. Jesus corrected James and John by reminding them that His mission was mercy, not vengeance. To strip this out is to silence one of the most practical safeguards against a vengeful heart."

The two verses in the NKJV say:

“But He turned and rebuked them, and said, “You do not know what manner of spirit you are of. For the Son of Man did not come to destroy men’s lives but to save [them].” And they went to another village.” (Lu 9:55-56 NKJV)

So of course there are some modern versions of the bible in English that mistranslate the original Greek or Hebrew, but it seems too sweeping a generalisation to suggest that all do.

While I do not agree with all the changes mentioned as affecting doctrine, this website also may help you to see the changes in Modern Bibles (with most of them being Critical Text Bibles) and the NKJV which has sprinkled-in Critical Text readings.

https://kjvcompare.com/


Note: Many of these changes I would not bring up because they are minor and do not affect doctrine. But there are some that do.




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… unique doctrinal truths found only in the KJV.
I strongly suggest that you think carefully through that phrase.

If a “doctrine” is unique to the KJV, it is not a Bible doctrine. It MUST be evident in the original-language texts or it is not worth discussing.
 
I encourage you to read 2 Corinthians 12:2 in the KJV in light of your argument here. If there is a “third heaven” then by the rules of grammar, “heavens” (plural) is correct.

Further, you are assuming that the KJV is correct apparently on the basis of your own familiarity rather than on any objective evidence that it is the best translation.

Thanks Dino346, for your comment. I do not subscribe to the somewhat well-known third heaven theory. I do believe that there is a third heaven, but I see the term 'third' as being a reference to true believers. So, in my opinion, the term third heaven is meaning the true believers' heaven, otherwise simply known as heaven. We read about the term 'third' as meaning the true believers in Zech 13:9: "And I will bring the third part through the fire, and will refine them as silver is refined, and will try them as gold is tried: they shall call on my name, and I will hear them: I will say, It is my people: and they shall say, The LORD is my God. " In the Bible, I believe that the terms of the Bible are to be examined as they occur elsewhere in the Bible to get at the real meaning by comparison. Bible terms are couched in parable language (Psalm 78:1-2, Mark 4:34), and 1 Cor 2:13 tells us to compare these terms of the Bible, spiritual with spiritual.

Nevertheless, I agree with your second point that the assumption of KJV is based on familiarity, and I do enjoy looking at the meaning of words in a concordance. I am leery of the many translations that came after the KJV since to me they often appear to be a way for authors and publishers to make money or a name forthemselves, although that could be a jaded analysis, and I have not felt that the KJV has steered me wrong, as to me it seems to hold up and fit together nicely. In terms of the very first verse of the Bible being renderred differently (heaven is plural) in the NKJV, I think it is worth looking at as I see the term heaven as meaning God's throne including Jesus and the true believers, not the big blue sky nor outer space, etc. Still, I am not throwing away the KJV as my source.
 
I strongly suggest that you think carefully through that phrase.

If a “doctrine” is unique to the KJV, it is not a Bible doctrine. It MUST be evident in the original-language texts or it is not worth discussing.

I am a strong advocate for the original languages. There are not only translation differences (which can and do mislead people to believe false things), but there are also textual differences, too. Meaning, there is a difference in doctrine textually involving the original language MSS. I mean, if you want to go down this road, the Vaticanus and Sinaiticus have Jesus dying by a spear, which is such a ridiculous reading that it is not printed in Critical Text Bibles. Then there is the Greek grammatical blunder with 1 Timothy 3:16. It does not have a subject. It just starts off with “who,” and the word “He” is added in English to make sense. But even in Greek, this is a grammatical blunder. There is the Comma (1 John 5:7), which is not in 2 manuscripts that have been uplifted, and so, because of this, people do not think the reading is authentic. Yet, there is a lot of other good evidence for the Comma. In fact, Georgios Babinatos, who is today's leading Greek expert (who wrote multiple dictionaries in Greek) said that there is a grammar error in two places if the Comma was not present in the text in Greek. While there are many who believe in the Trinity who prefer Modern Bibles, Trinity deniers love to attack 1 John 5:7. Most are ignorant of the evidence that defends the Comma because they simply do not want to look at the evidence. Their mind is already made up because they believe a false lie by a scholar they like.

Also, most people here did not repent or accept Jesus based on hearing the Greek. So this shows that our faith even came about by hearing a translation of the original languages. So to dismiss translation differences as not affecting people is a flawed position in my humble opinion.


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Thanks Dino346, for your comment. I do not subscribe to the somewhat well-known third heaven theory. I do believe that there is a third heaven, but I see the term 'third' as being a reference to true believers. So, in my opinion, the term third heaven is meaning the true believers' heaven, otherwise simply known as heaven. We read about the term 'third' as meaning the true believers in Zech 13:9: "And I will bring the third part through the fire, and will refine them as silver is refined, and will try them as gold is tried: they shall call on my name, and I will hear them: I will say, It is my people: and they shall say, The LORD is my God. " In the Bible, I believe that the terms of the Bible are to be examined as they occur elsewhere in the Bible to get at the real meaning by comparison. Bible terms are couched in parable language (Psalm 78:1-2, Mark 4:34), and 1 Cor 2:13 tells us to compare these terms of the Bible, spiritual with spiritual.

Nevertheless, I agree with your second point that the assumption of KJV is based on familiarity, and I do enjoy looking at the meaning of words in a concordance. I am leery of the many translations that came after the KJV since to me they often appear to be a way for authors and publishers to make money or a name forthemselves, although that could be a jaded analysis, and I have not felt that the KJV has steered me wrong, as to me it seems to hold up and fit together nicely. In terms of the very first verse of the Bible being renderred differently (heaven is plural) in the NKJV, I think it is worth looking at as I see the term heaven as meaning God's throne including Jesus and the true believers, not the big blue sky nor outer space, etc. Still, I am not throwing away the KJV as my source.

One could make the conclusion that the KJV is defended based on familiarity. But it is actually a biblical concept that God's Word is perfect, and that it will last for all generations. There is no Bible verse or passages defending the Originals Onlyism position, whereby we have corrupted texts only today, so it is left up to us to try and be our own scholars or to hold to scholars who lie or make things up. Also, the whole Modern Bible movement is based on deception. Its very origins are rooted in deception, with the English Revised Version spearheaded by Westcott and Hort. It was supposed to be just a KJV update, but in reality, it was also based on favoring Vaticanus and Sinaiticus. There are changed doctrines when you compare the KJV vs. Modern Bibles. I strived not to highlight changes that my fellow KJV-only brethren would point out that are extremely minor in my viewpoint. For example, Luke 4:4 (while a corruption in my view) is not a point I would bring up because it does not affect doctrine since the other witnesses in Scripture are there giving us that same truth.


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Thanks Dino346, for your comment. I do not subscribe to the somewhat well-known third heaven theory. I do believe that there is a third heaven, but I see the term 'third' as being a reference to true believers. So, in my opinion, the term third heaven is meaning the true believers' heaven, otherwise simply known as heaven. We read about the term 'third' as meaning the true believers in Zech 13:9: "And I will bring the third part through the fire, and will refine them as silver is refined, and will try them as gold is tried: they shall call on my name, and I will hear them: I will say, It is my people: and they shall say, The LORD is my God. " In the Bible, I believe that the terms of the Bible are to be examined as they occur elsewhere in the Bible to get at the real meaning by comparison. Bible terms are couched in parable language (Psalm 78:1-2, Mark 4:34), and 1 Cor 2:13 tells us to compare these terms of the Bible, spiritual with spiritual.
The word “third” has two related but distinct meanings which can be determined through context. One is fractional, “one-third” as in Zechariah 13:9, and the other is ordinal, “third in a row” as in 2 Cor 12:2.

Psalm 78:2 and Mark 4:34 are context-specific and do not inform interpretation of every word or passage in Scripture. If they did (and some people believe they do) then even plain statements such as Acts 2:38 would necessarily be parabolic and therefore would not mean what they say. ;)
 
I can’t access it from my phone so it will have to wait until I have time at home.

No need to rush through it. I wrote a lot, and there is a lot that you may need to compare at Biblehub, Biblegateway for yourself (Seeing I did not put the verse changes side by side). Comparing the differences and seeing if they truly are unique enough to affect people's faith is the point I am trying to make. In my experience, I have run into those who favor Modern Bibles, and they believe something false because of the Modern Bible rendering.


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I strongly suggest that you think carefully through that phrase.

If a “doctrine” is unique to the KJV, it is not a Bible doctrine. It MUST be evident in the original-language texts or it is not worth discussing.

At the end of the PDF, I have resources and tools that help a person compare the different lines of Bibles that are in primary use today. In other words, I provide ways for a person to check the Beza Greek 1598 (except for 20 or so translatable differences) vs. the Nestle and Aland Greek or the Vatican and Sinaiticus. I provide the same for the Hebrew, as well. The KJV uses the Ben Chayyim, and the Modern Bibles primarily go with the BHS now. I provided sources and tools to help do the original language studies, so one can compare the differences even more on their own. I did update my PowerPoint slide on the textual differences from my KJV debate, and I may try and do a video on that at some point.


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The translation I use is worth considering; here's sone info from their faq. It was completed in 2020:

What is the WEB Translation Philosophy?
The WEB must
  • be done with prayer -- specifically prayer for inspiration by the Holy Spirit.
  • be accurate and reliable (Revelation 22:18-19).
  • be understandable to the majority of the world’s English-speaking population (and therefore should avoid locale-specific usage).
  • be kept in the Public Domain (and therefore be done by volunteers).
  • be made available in a short time, because we don’t know the exact time of our Lord’s return.
  • preserve the essential trustworthy character of the original 1901 publication.
  • use language that is not faddish, but likely to retain its meaning for some time.
  • resolve unclear passages by referring to the original Hebrew and Greek.
  • be done with utmost respect for God and His Word.
  • be done by Christians from a variety of denominations and backgrounds.
  • retain the ASV 1901’s pronoun capitalization rules (lower case “he” referring to God).
  • retain (in most cases) the ASV 1901’s use of “he” when that word might mean (“he and/or she”).
  • restrict footnotes to those which clarify the translation, note textual variants, give reasonable alternate translations, or clarify some essential context.
Is the World English Bible Perfect?
We pray for the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, and I believe He supplies it. However, our ability to receive that great gift is imperfect. We do not claim that the translation is perfect, and we certainly don't believe it to be more reliable than the original language texts we are translating from. We do ask you to pray for us, that God would help us to find whatever needs to be corrected, and that we would be wise in filtering through suggested changes to discern what is from God and what is not.

What original language texts are you using?
Since this is primarily an update of the 1901 edition, the choices made by the original 50 or so Evangelical scholars that made this translation hold unless reference is made to the original languages to help with places where the Elizabethan English is not clear, or where major textual variants are known to exist. In this case, we are using the Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia, also called The Stuttgart Bible, in the Old Testament, and the Byzantine Majority Text . We referenced both the Robinson-Pierpont and Hodges-Farstad editions, which are nearly identical. This choice of Greek text is very close to what the KJV translators used, but does take advantage of some more recently discovered manuscripts. Although there are good scholarly arguments both for and against using the Byzantine Majority Text over the “Alexandrian” text based on the dating and critical editing work of Nestle and Aland and published by the United Bible Societies (NU), we find the following to be compelling reasons:
  • The NU text has a lot of “dropout” errors relative to the M-Text. Diligent scribes with a respect for God’s Word are more likely to miss copying something (i.e. by skipping a line, etc.) than to make up a line to add in.
  • Different scribes copying the same passage aren’t all likely to make the same mistakes at the same places, even though some mistakes are likely to be copied over many times.
  • When a scribe had a choice of manuscripts to copy, he would normally copy the one that he trusted the most, thus causing the most trusted text to be copied more often.
  • The NU text relies heavily on the dating of the media upon which the text was written, but those texts that are used more and trusted more would both be copied more often and worn out from use sooner.
  • The NU text is heavily weighted to a small number of manuscripts relative to those available to us, and relies heavily on one manuscript that was pulled from a trash can at a monastery.
  • The Holy Spirit takes an active interest in preserving what He has inspired.
  • In those few sections where the M-Text and UBS text differ significantly, I have taken my question of textual choice directly to God, and God chose to answer me by confirming in several different ways that reading which the M-Text rendered. The main passage in question is in Mark 16, but there are others, too. While I certainly don’t claim to be infallible, I do know when to say, “Yes, Sir” and follow the direction I see the Lord pointing me in. For you, this last reason is entirely subjective. For me, it is more real than the computer I'm typing on.
For the curious, the scholarly, and those who might think we "changed" the Holy Bible in translation, significant differences between these three credible choices of source text are footnoted in the World English Bible.
Please note that although there are many differences between the various manuscripts and critical compilations of manuscripts, none of them impact the essential Good News of Jesus Christ or any sound doctrine.

How does the WEB compare to other translations?
The WEB is different enough to avoid copyright infringement, but similar enough to avoid incurring the wrath of God. By “different enough,” I mean that the wording is about as different from any one Modern English translation as the current translations differ from each other. By “similar enough,” I mean that the meaning is preserved and that the Gospel still cuts to the very soul. It is most similar to the ASV of 1901, of course, but I suppose that similarities will be found with other translations.
The WEB doesn’t capitalize pronouns pertaining to God. This is similar to the NRSV and NIV, and the same as the original ASV of 1901. Note that this is an English style decision, because Hebrew has no such thing as upper and lower case, and the oldest Greek manuscripts were all upper case. I kind of prefer the approach of the KJV, NKJV, and NASB of capitalizing these pronouns, because I write that way most of the time and because it is a way of offering greater honor to God. I admit that it is kind of a throw-back to the Olde English practice of capitalizing pronouns referring to the king. This is archaic, because we don’t capitalize pronouns that refer to our president. It is also true that choosing to capitalize pronouns relating to God causes some difficulties in translating the coronation psalms, where the psalm was initially written for the coronation of an earthly king, but which also can equally well be sung or recited to the praise of the King of Kings. Capitalizing pronouns relating to God also makes for some strange reading where people were addressing Jesus with anything but respect. In any case, in the presence of good arguments both ways, we have decided to leave these as they were in the ASV 1901 (which also gives us fewer opportunities to make mistakes).
The original WEB, like the ASV of 1901, breaks the KJV tradition by printing God’s proper Name in the Old Testament with a spelling closest to what we think it was pronounced like, instead of rendering that Name as “LORD” or “GOD” (with all caps or small caps). The current scholarly consensus has shifted from spelling this Name as “Jehovah” to spelling it as “Yahweh”. There are also a few places in the Old Testament where God's proper name is shortened to “Yah”, and those are transliterated as they stand. There are a couple of other English translations that use “Yahweh,” so this is not new, per se, but it does set it off a little from other translations. However, in the World Messianic Bible (WMB), World English Bible British Edition (WEBBE), World English Bible Catholic Edition, and World English Bible Update, we go back to the KJV-like tradition of using “LORD” or “GOD” (all caps instead of small caps). Note that the Septuagint and the Greek New Testament do not transliterate God's name, but substitute the Greek word for “Lord”, instead, we do not use “Yahweh” anywhere in the New Testament or the Apocrypha/Deuterocanon.
Because World English Bible (WEB) uses the Majority Text as the primary basis for the New Testament, you may notice the following differences in comparing the WEB to other translations:
  • The order of Matthew 23:13 and 14 is reversed in some translations.
  • Luke 17:36 and Acts 15:34, which are not found in the majority of the Greek Manuscripts (and are relegated to footnotes in the WEB) may be included in some other translations.
  • Romans 14:24-26 in the WEB may appear as Romans 16:25-27 in other translations.
  • 1 John 5:7-8 may read differently in some translations.
Smaller variations based on textual variants are explained in footnotes.