Loss of salvation???
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What difference?
They are not saved for being baptized.
Were you commanded to be baptized by the Spirit?
I did not even know it was happening to me!
The point was what Mark16:16 says. There's no need in the second clause for "baptism".
Was it by God's command, or man's traditions?
It was just like we become baptized by the Spirit!
And asked them, “Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?”
They answered, “No, we have not even heard that there is a Holy Spirit.” Acts 19:2
That was when it was all new and still unknown by many yet to learn.
We now receive it when we believe!
No, I do not. Again the word covenant is not mentioned in those chapters. So how do you know that God made a covenant if it’s not stated somewhere? I think you are PRESUMING TO ASSUME.
God tells us “If anyone speaks, let him speak as the oracles of God. 1 Peter 4:11. I googled the expression “oracles of God” and it came up, words of God. So I want to see God’s words where it says “this is a covenant” or I am making a covenant” or I made a covenant.”something that tells us it IS a covenant—not something that you ASSUME is a covenant.
Notice to whom these promises of salvation and eternal life are made. John 6:35- the promise is made to those who “COME TO ME” and BELIEVE. (Jesus). Verse 37- those who COME TO Jesus.
VERSE 40- those who believe on Jesus have everlasting life. Who are these people who believe in Jesus and COME TO Him? They are the FAITHFUL followers of Christ .
When we talk about salvation that has been LOST, we are not talking about the FAITHFUL Christian. We are NOT talking about the ones who COME to him, we are talking about the ones who LEAVE Him. These passages do not teach that a person can’t lose their salvation— they just teach that the faithful Christian who believes and comes to Jesus will have eternal life. Surely you can see the difference. I can only assume that you use such verses as these because you do not have ANY SCRIOTYRES THAT SHOW A PERSON LEAVING Christ but will be sacred anyway! NOW that woujd shOW that you can’t be lost— but these do not teach what you are saying.
Does it seem obvious that we can be poisoned with no ill effects?
Why do none of the epistles command water baptism if it is of salvific importance?
In Genesis 2:16 – God tells Adam that He has provided for all his needs, that he can enjoy everything except fruit from the tree of knowledge. This was the promise of God, (a covenant promise of sorts) – so long as Adam obeyed!
16 And the Lord God commanded the man, saying, “Of every tree of the garden you may freely eat; 17 but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die.”
No, I have been discussing with YOU not her. But what about what WE HAVE discussed ? What about those chapters in Genesis that do not even mention the word covenant? What about scripture for your statement that God and Jesus have a covenant? I think it is clear that you have no scripture to support your teaching. 1 Thess. 2:13 Paul said that He rejoiced because when the Thessalonians heard what Paul preached they welcomed it as the WORD OF GOD and Not THE WORD OF MEN. We are not to be deceived by the words of men. If you can’t back up your teaching with sound words from God then I have no choice but to reject your words as the words and teachings of men and not from God.
He also told him to be fruitful and multiply and exercise dominion over creation, but the only command with consequences was the one you posted.
It is really bad when you feel the need to pick out a single word covenant to argue that no promise was made!
Hosea 6:7 establishes that there was a covenant between God and Adam. But you were the one who defined a covenant as an agreement. And it's easy enough to establish from the early chapters of Genesis that such an agreement was made.
Unreal how they go on and on denying what is clearly written while insisting calling it the words of men.
In return...
Why was no one in the Old Testament commanded to be filled with the Spirit like we are?
The term "dispensation" was coined to allow us to organize our thinking according to the age we had been born in.
One reason would be because the epistles were letters written to Christian’s who had already been baptized..
Romans 1:7-to all the “SAINTS”in Rome. Written to Christian’s.
1 & 2 Corinthians 1:2- to the CHURCH of God at Corinth.
Galations 1:2- to the CHURCHES of Galatia.
Ephesians 1:1 to the SAINTS in Ephesus
Philippians 1:1- to all the SAINTS in Philippi.
Colossians 1:2- to the SAINTS AND FAITHFUL BRETHERN in CHRIST who are in Colosse.
1 &2 Thessalonians 1:1- to the CHURCH of the Thessalonians in God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
And even James, Peter and Jude, Hebrews and Revelation are all written to Christian’s who have already obeyed the gospel in baptism and are saved. So you would not expect the writers to try to persuade these churches and saints to be baptized! That would make no sense at all.
However, there are some passages on Baptism in the epistles that you would do well to read. For instance in Roman’s ,6, Paul tells those Christian’s who had already been baptized, “…AS MANY of US WHO WERE BAPTIZED INTO CHRUST JESUS WERE BAPTIZED INTO HIS DEATH. THEREFORE WE WERE BURIED WITH HIM THROUGH BAPTISM INTO DEATH, that just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we should walk in NEWNESS OF LIFE.” Proving that these Christian’s to whom he was writing had already been baptized. Read on through verse 11. It explains a lot of what happens in baptism. Christ shed His blood in His death. We are baptized into His death where we come into contact with His blood which then washes away our sins. No where in the scriptures does it ever say, hint, or imply that the blood of Christ washes away our sins when we “believe” or “repent” or “confess.” We come into contact with the blood of Jesus when we are baptized into His death, where His blood was shed. This is why baptism is so impirtant and why there was such urgency in the New Testament for people to be baptized.
In 1 Corinthians 1, Paul is rebuking men who call themselves after other men. He said some were calling themselves after Barnabas, and Apollos. He then makes the point that you should not call yourselves by the names of men— kinda like the LUTHERANS today call themselves after Martian Luther. Paul says there are two things that must be true before you can call yourself after someone: 1) the person needs to have been CRUCIFIED For you and 2) you would have to be BAPTIZED into that person’s name. SO, Christ has been CRUCIFIED for us and we have been BAPTIZED into the name of Christ just as Jesus said to do in the Great commission in Matthew 28:18-19, “… baptizing them in the name of the Father, and the Son and the Holy Spirit.”and also Peter in Acts 2 when he said, “ let everyone of you’be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ…” so we are now qualified to call ourselves “CHRISTIAN after the name of Christ. But what about those who don’t think Baptism is necessary and so are not baptized? Can they call themselves a Christian when they have never “put on Christ” or been baptized inHis nane. Paul would say “No.” That was His whole argument in 1 Corinthians 1. There is more about baptism in Galations and Colossians and Peter (it SAVES us) that tell us how important it is; so I don’t know why you would complain that the epistles don’t command it. I think “you do err not knowing the scriptures.” Matthew 22:29.