How clear can you get if sometimes (an original) word means woman and other times it means wife? or sometimes it means deacon and other times it means servant? and at times supposedly only depending on if it is referring to a male or female? and especially if it is left to who happens to have acquired to authority (i.e. translation authorized by king james as opposed to being authorized by queen mary).
Is it clear that "ruling over" and is exactly the same as "having authority"? Scripture tells us that the people noticed that Jesus spoke as one having authority. Does that translate that He was authorized to change the meaning of scripture according to His personal preferences? Those that hold to the position that women cannot have authority have their own preferences toward that interpretation and just as much read it as you like and claim scriptural backup but more, accurately it is only a translational backup.
Is it clear that "ruling over" and is exactly the same as "having authority"? Scripture tells us that the people noticed that Jesus spoke as one having authority. Does that translate that He was authorized to change the meaning of scripture according to His personal preferences? Those that hold to the position that women cannot have authority have their own preferences toward that interpretation and just as much read it as you like and claim scriptural backup but more, accurately it is only a translational backup.
I have no preference in this matter, just would like to follow the Lord according to His way and not man or society's.
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